The reason for two days of yontif (outside Israel) is based on uncertainty about the date due to distance from Jerusalem and time needed to travel to convey the news of when the month started. The reason we have two-day Rosh Hodesh is explained here.
What puzzles me is why we do not have two days of Rosh Hodesh for the same reason as we have two days of yontif. Why doesn't the reasoning for two-day yontifs apply to Rosh Hodesh (yielding a two-day Rosh Hodesh every month)?
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