Saturday, April 14, 2018

orbitals - Triple Bond Character in Acyl Chlorides


I am told that because of the poor overlap between a chlorine atom and a carbon atom and chlorine's relatively high electronegativity, there is a strong partial positive character on the central carbon in an acyl chloride molecule.


This makes sense. I am then told that because of this high partial positive character created through the inductive effect of chlorine and oxygen and the poor overlap between chlorine and oxygen, the oxygen's lone pair(s) actually participate in a sort of resonance with the central carbon, thereby giving the C=O bond in an acyl chloride partial triple bond character.


Is this true? Also what exactly is this called? Backbonding?



Answer



The various resonance structures that one can draw for an acid chloride are shown below.


enter image description here



Structure IV, is the "triple bond" structure that you mentioned. The acylium ion ($\ce{R-C#O^{+}}$) is very stable, so structure IV does contribute to the overall description of an acid chloride. Note that the $\ce{C#O}$ bond in IV is not a real triple bond as the carbon remains $\ce{sp^2}$ hybridized, with the attendant 120 degree (non-linear) bond angles. I've also drawn a fifth resonance structure involving hypeconjugation. This is probably a reasonable structure as well since it places negative charge on oxygen and positive charge on the hydrogen. It also helps explain why hydrogens on the carbon alpha to a carbonyl have increased acidity.


Usually the term "backbonding" is used when electron density is transferred from one atom to another through the use of antibonding orbitals. See here for a better description. In resonance structure IV, the lone pair from oxygen is being shared with an empty carbon $\ce{sp^2}$ orbital, the one that had been used to bond to the chlorine. I've never heard that referred to as backbonding.


equilibrium - Gibbs free energy-minimum or zero?



A reaction proceeds towards the direction of lesser Gibbs free energy (at constant $T$ (temperature) and $P$ (pressure)). So, we could say that Gibbs free energy at equilibrium is minimum.


On the other hand, we have $$\Delta G=\Delta G^\circ + RT\ln Q$$, where $Q$ is the reaction quotient. At equilibrium, $Q=K_\text{eq}$, and we already know that $\Delta G^\circ =-RT\ln K_\text{eq}$.


Substituting, we get $\Delta G=0$ at equilibrium. But, we know that $G$ minimized itself—thus there was a change in $G$ and $\Delta G < 0$.


What am I missing here?



Answer



I think your question really arises from some confusion about what $\Delta G$ represents. In general, $\Delta X$ for a thermodynamic quantity $X$ is the change of $X$ along some process. You could make it clear by actually writing $\Delta G(\text{A}\rightarrow\text{B})$ where A and B are before and after states. (We'll note that, in the general case, $\Delta X$ depends on the path take from A to B, making this notation improper. If $X$ is a function of state, though, you're good to go.)


However, in the equation you quote:


$$\Delta G = \Delta G^0 + RT \ln Q$$


the $\Delta G$ is a free energy of reaction and should thus be denoted $\Delta_r G$, with the correct equation being:


$$\Delta_r G = \Delta_r G^0 + RT \ln Q$$



The free energy of reaction is defined as $\Delta_r G = G_{\text{products}} - G_{\text{reactants}}$.




Thus, this $\Delta_r G$ is not the variation of $G$ over the entire reaction, which would be the $\Delta G$ of the system between the start of the reaction and the equilibrium.




PS: I think this link is the online resource I found with the clearer use and explanation of notations. Notations are important in thermodynamics!


Thursday, April 12, 2018

thermodynamics - Validity of Trouton's Rule


I would like to know under what circumstances is Trouton's rule obeyed by liquids and why certain systems i.e. substances may deviate from Trouton's rule.


By the way I know what Trouton's rule is and I have a vague idea that sometimes Trouton's rule is not obeyed due to the presence of hydrogen bonding in liquids such as water but I would like to know more about other reasons why certain situations the rule is invalid.




halacha theory - How studying Torah without Machlokot is possible?


The idea of Machloket-less study and transmission of the Oral Torah is very basic in Judaism.


I spot two approaches:




  1. That of Sanhedrin 68b - there were Machlokot and different approaches and schools, but they were all settled by the working Sanhedrin:



    "תניא, אמר רבי יוסי: מתחילה לא היו מרבין מחלוקת בישראל, אלא בית דין של שבעים ואחד יושבין בלשכת הגזית"



    "... Rabbi Yosei said: Initially, discord would not proliferate among Israel. Rather, the court of seventy-one judges would sit in the Chamber of Hewn Stone... "





  2. That there were no different approaches, just as Moses didn't have them: Rashi (Sotah 47a see also Temurah 16a):



    "עד ימיהן לא היה מחלוקת בחכמי ישראל כולן היו אומרים דברים כנתינתן למשה"






While the first sound reasonable and feasible, the second sounds improbable and illogical: besides simple reciting mantras, discussing just anything leads to discords as a result of:




  • Differences in perception of the surrounding world - for example, time of sunrise, colors of stains, animal species or estimations of physical states (illness etc)




  • Finding new interpretations of the text




  • Different hierarchy of values (what overrides what)





Moreover, we can clearly see that Moses himself perceived the obligating (him) Halochos differently than what G-d told him, as in Breaking the Luchos, adding a day before Matan Torah, hitting the Rock and more.


I'm looking for a more comprehensive explanation of the approach that for over a thousand years studying of the Torah was Machloket-less.




Wednesday, April 11, 2018

particle が - How do you avoid multiple が in a sentence


I would like to ask on how to avoid multiple occurrences of the particle ga in a sentence. For example:


詳細{しょうさい}のクエリは削除{さくじょ}フラグが0がありません。


What I meant in the sentence: The Detail query does not contain the condition of "delete-flag equals 0".


Right now I would work around this by using equals symbol or change the verb like fukumemasen.


詳細{しょうさい}のクエリは削除{さくじょ}フラグ=0がありません。

or


詳細{しょうさい}のクエリは削除{さくじょ}フラグが0を含{ふく}めません。

Is the original sentence's grammar correct? If not, are my alternative sentences correct?



Answer



I'm a little confused because 0がありません means "there is no zero".



Perhaps "delete-flag equals zero" should be ゼロの削除{さくじょ}フラグ or ゼロと等{ひと}しい削除{さくじょ}フラグ




I'm going to interpret your sentence as :


The Detail query does not contain the condition of "delete-flag equals 0"



Nouns: Detail query, (the condition of) delete-flag equals 0 (Not really a noun phrase unless interpreted as a condition)


Verb: contain


Negatives: (negates existence of "condition of delete-flag equals 0")



The sentence should be of the forms:




[Detail Query]には[Condition of delete-flag equals zero]を[not contain]


詳細{しょうさい}のクエリには ゼロと等{ひと}しい削除{さくじょ}フラグの状態{じょうたい}含{ふく}めない - Condition of delete-flag equals zero is not included in the detail query.


詳細{しょうさい}のクエリは ゼロと等{ひと}しい削除{さくじょ}フラグの状態{じょうたい}ない - Condition of delete-flag equals zero is not present with respect to the detail query.



Alternatively, I think you can use the ~という construct. i.e ゼロと等{ひと}しい削除{さくじょ}フラグという. Using this will turn the sentence into ... does not contain "delete-flag equals zero" (instead of condition of ~)


inorganic chemistry - Why is sulfur hexafluoride more stable than selenium or tellurium hexafluoride?


I was just reading about p Block elements from two different books. Both books say that $\ce{SF6}$ is extremely stable in 16th group due to steric reasons but my question is why is it more stable than $\ce{SeF6}$ and $\ce{TeF6}$ when $\ce{S}$ is more electronegative and smaller than $\ce{Te}$ and $\ce{Se}$ and so it would bring the electrons in bonding with fluorine closer to the central atom i.e $\ce{S}$ and thus it would bring the electrons closer and there would be more repulsion between the electron pairs.


Maybe this can be explained by Fajans rules that due to such conditions $\ce{SF6}$ has more covalent character than others and thus is more stable. But if this is the reason, where does "steric" come in here?



Answer




$\ce{SF6}$ is extremely stable for purely steric reasons, because S is completely blocked by fluorine atoms from all directions, so the reactions starting with an attack on S that otherwise would readily occur (hydrolysis, etc.) never have the chance to occur. This has nothing to do with electronegativity. For another similar example, look at $\ce{CCl4}$.


Now, the word "stable" is commonly used in two different senses. A compound may be stable by itself, i.e. not prone to spontaneous decomposition; in that sense $\ce{SF6}$, $\ce{SeF6}$, and $\ce{TeF6}$ are all totally stable under normal conditions, so there is nothing to compare. On the other hand, we may consider "stability" as inability to react with common reagents, e.g. water. In that sense $\ce{SF6}$ is indeed far more "stable" than the analogs, and that for the steric reasons (see above).


As for the thermal stability, that's another story altogether, so I don't really know how it would turn out. I wouldn't be surprised if $\ce{TeF6}$ would indeed happen to be the most stable of them all.


hashkafah philosophy - From where/Why do you get more reward for doing a obligated mitzvah than a non obligated mitzvah?


Ive heard (not sure where)that you get more reward for doing a obligated mitzvah than a non obligated mitzvah. Where is this brought down, and whats the reason for this?



Answer



The source that someone obligated in a mitzvah receives more reward than someone not obligated is a statement of R. Chanina which appears several times in the Talmud. The first appearance is Kiddushin 31a.



וא"ר חנינא ומה מי שאינו מצווה ועושה כך מצווה ועושה עאכו"כ דאר"ח גדול מצווה ועושה ממי שאינו מצווה ועושה אמר רב יוסף מריש ה"א מאן דהוה אמר לי הלכה כר"י דאמר סומא פטור מן המצות עבידנא יומא טבא לרבנן דהא לא מיפקידנא והא עבידנא השתא דשמעיתא להא דא"ר חנינא גדול מצווה ועושה יותר ממי שאינו מצווה ועושה אדרבה מאן דאמר לי דאין הלכה כרבי יהודה עבידנא יומא טבא לרבנן


Now, R. Hanina observed thereon, If one who is not commanded [to honour his parents], yet does so, is thus [rewarded], how much more so one who is commanded and does so! For R. Hanina said: He who is commanded and fulfils [the command], is greater than he who fulfils it though not commanded. R. Joseph said: Originally, I thought, that if anyone would tell me that the halachah agrees with R. Judah, that a blind person is exempt from the precepts,I would make a banquet for the Rabbis, seeing that I am not obliged, yet fulfil them. Now, however, that I have heard R. Hanina's dictum that he who is commanded and fulfils [the command] is greater than he who fulfils it though not commanded; on the contrary, if anyone should tell me that the halachah does not agree with R. Judah, I would make a banquet for the Rabbis. (Soncino translation)



Tosafot on the spot explains that the reasoning behind this is that an obligated individual goes through more worry and anguish that he might mess it up, while the non-obligated individual has nothing to worry about because he is not even obligated. The extra worry/anguish gets him extra reward.




נראה דהיינו טעמא דמי שמצווה ועושה עדיף לפי שדואג ומצטער יותר פן יעבור ממי שאין מצווה שיש לו פת בסלו שאם ירצה יניח



Ritva, in his commentary there, first quotes "our rabbis" as explaining that Satan goes after one who is commanded and not one who is not commanded. Therefore, one who is commanded receives more reward in accordance with the extra effort that was required.



פירשו רבותינו ז"ל טעם הדבר שזה שטן מקטרגו כשהוא מצווה וזה אין שטן מקטרגו ולפום צערא אגרא



He than quotes "our great rabbi" (Ramban) as explaining that one who is obligated fulfills the decree of the King by doing a mitzvah whereas one who is not obligated does not fulfill a decree of the King; hence the former gets more reward.



ורבינו הגדול ז"ל פירש שהמצות אינן להנאת האל יתברך המצוה אלא לזכותינו ומי שהוא מצווה קיים גזירת המלך ולפיכך שכרו מרובה יותר מזה שלא קיים מצות המלך




halacha - What defines a country to be a legitimate country?


There are a few Halachas that apply to a Jew's relationship with his country. For example, Dina Dmalchusa, another is not to rebel (although its Halachic strength is disputed, all agree that under normal conditions, one should keep those three oaths.)




What defines a country vis-a-vis these laws?


For example, if there were religious Jews in the United States before the revolution, at what point would the Jews be permitted (or more accurately, obligated) to support the United States? Would Jews be allowed to support the Confederacy? On the other hand, were Jews permitted to join the Union if they came from the south?


On one hand, maybe the Confederacy is considered an independent country invaded by the Union (as they viewed themselves). On the other, maybe the South were rebels, so it would be forbidden to help them.


At which point would Jews be obligated to obey their laws? At which point did "United States law" trump "British law" vis-a-vis Dina Dmalchusa?




EDIT


A further question (similar to this one):



At which point does a group of people become a country. For example, if one lived in a neighborhood which was run by a Mafia, would he be obligated to obey the laws of that Mafia (for example, if he got away with not paying "protection money", would he still be violating "Dina Dmalchusa")?



Answer



A consensus developed among the Gaonim, and it appears in the Rambam, that "show me the money" is one criterion in determining legitimacy. If you're not sure if this uprising is a real government, have it issue currency and see if people use it. They do? It's a real government. (As for the American Revolution: someone remind me please about the phrase "not worth a Continental...")


While others differed, Rabbi Moshe Feinstein felt that even Communist Russia in its early years was treated as a legitimate government, albeit a seriously flawed one.


I'd asked a posek about Iraq under Saddam Hussein, he said no halacha wouldn't call that legitimate, a government that is as far from honesty as can be. I asked exactly where the line was drawn, the posek said he couldn't say, but Saddam was definitely on the other side!


halacha - Origin of two customs on wearing the Talis after making the brocho



How do we wear the Talis Godol immediately after making the brocho?


1) There seems to be one method practised by those following German minhogim. Can someone give a source for it please? Is this called כעטיפת הישמעלים?


2) The other method, כעטיפת הישמעלים, involves throwing the tzitzis over the shoulder after making the brocho. It seems that the four tzitzis need to be thrown over the left shoulder. See for example the illustration in Feldman’s Kitzur Sh” O and Mishna Berura 8 (2)[4]


Yet I remember being told by a (non-Chabad) Rav only to throw the right side tzitzis over the shoulder. Similarly the rubric on p11 of the 5758 edition of the Tehillas HaShem Siddur on the 770live.com website throws only the right side tzitzis over the shoulder.


What please is the origin of the difference between these two minhogim?



Answer



מנהג אשכנז is a) to pull the טלית over one’s head and back (on the head up to the eyes), b) take the right side of the טלית and throw it over the left shoulder (or according to a later מנהג to take the left side and throw it over the right shoulder), in such a way that the chin (and also mouth and nose) are covered.


The מגן אברהם (ס׳ ח, סי׳ ד)‏ derives from the גמרא in מסכת קדושין (דף כט)‏ a) that an unmarried young man should not cover his head with a טלית, and from (דף ח) of the same מסכת, b) that one who is not a תלמיד חכם should not cover his head, even if he is married. It is quite surprising that those following מנהג פולין, do not follow the latter ruling of the מגן אברהם, although they do follow the former. In אשכנז this מגן אברהם wasn't followed (they had a different interpretation of the גמרא), for example in the ישיבת חתם סופר, unmarried young men covered their heads with a טלית. Today, in most synagogues which follow מנהגי אשכנז, unmarried young men wear a hat, as opposed to putting a טלית over their heads. The מנהג of a married adult men wearing a hat rather than wearing a טלית over the head, was not started by רבוני אשכנז, and on the contrary - the רבנים themselves retained the old מנהג.


אָמַר רַב יִצְחָק בַּר יוֹסֵף אָמַר רְֿבִי יוֹחָנָן "הַיוֹצֵא בְּטַלִית מְקוּפֶּֽלֶת מוּנַֽחַת לוֹ עַל כְּתֵיפוֹ בְּשַׁבָּת חַיָּיב חַטָאת׃"‏


רב יצחק בר יוסף stated in the name of רבי יוחנן, one who goes outs into the public domain with a folded cloak resting on his shoulder on שבת, is liable for a חטאת.



Commentary: The גמרא understands טלית to be a large four-cornered garment similar in size and dimension to the טלית used during תפילה today (ערוך השלחן ס׳ ש״א ס״ק פ״א); see also (ערוך השלחן ס׳ ש״א ס״ק ל״א). In Talmudic times, this garment was a normal part of daily attire (ריטב״א). It was generally worn draped over the head and shoulders in such a way that most of one’s body would be covered by it; the sides of the cloak would flow down one’s arms, and the end of the cloak would extend down one’s back towards the floor (see רש״י and ערוך השלחן ad loc.). Here, though, the גמרא discusses a case where the cloak was not worn in this manner. Instead of allowing the cloak to drape behind him, the person lifted the back end of the garment onto his shoulders, in effect folding the cloak in half width-size (רש״י). His purpose in doing so was presumably to guard against the end of the cloak touching the ground and becoming soiled or ripped (see ערוך השלחן ad loc.). Since this is not the normal way the cloak is worn, the person is deemed to be carrying the garment rather than wearing it (see רש״י here and above, דף נ״ה, ד״ה חייב חטאת), and carrying from a private to a public domain is prohibited on שבת. [Since the cloak is not usually worn in this manner, the person cannot be said to be wearing the garment (see אורח חיים ס׳ ש״א ס״ק כ״ט, ל׳).]


בני אשכנז were מקפיד not to fold the טלית over their shoulders, but to wrap their bodies in it, to wear it like a blanket. The טלית is considered clothing, not just something resting on one’s shoulders. The חזן would wear it the same way as חזנים wear it today in קהילות אשכנז. This is discussed at length by רבי אליעזר רוקח. The רוקח’s opinion is as follows, a) one should have two ציציות in the front and two in the back, (Those who wished to follow his opinion, would wrap two ציציות back around their neck!) According to the ancient מנהג this was not done, as most people were not מקפיד. People by not folding the טליתות over their shoulders, might cause their ציציות to drag on the floor, this does not pose a halachic problem. (Those who wish to wear their טלית in a similar way to the ancient מנהג, and don't want to have the ציציות on the floor, should tuck in the bottom ציציות through their belt, in this way they fulfill all מנהגים.) The רוקח’s opinion is quoted by the דרכי חיים ושלום (Munkaczer מנהגים Paragraph 35 of the footnotes). This was also the מנהג of many חסידים in the Ukraine and surrounding regions, including those of Chernobyl, Skver, Karlin-Stolin, and Belz.


grammar - 相手の日本人 or 日本人の相手?


If I wanted to describe the person I was speaking about as being Japanese, to me it seems natural to say:



日本人{にほんじん}の相手{あいて}



... however, one time a Japanese teacher told me it's more correct to say:




相手{あいて}の日本人{にほんじん}



... but that never sat right with me. To me the first way seems more logical because it goes from more general to more specific.


Is 相手{あいて}の日本人{にほんじん} more correct?


If so, why?



Answer



This の signifies the two words refer to the same thing, and 相手の日本人 means someone who is 相手 and 日本人 at the same time. I do not think that using 日本人の相手 when you mean 相手の日本人 is incorrect. However, 日本人の相手 is ambiguous: it may mean the same as 相手の日本人, but it may also mean an opponent/partner/company of some Japanese person, as in 吉田さんの相手. This is probably why the teacher said that it is more correct to say 相手の日本人 than to say 日本人の相手.


If you think that 日本人の相手 is more natural than 相手の日本人, that may be because 日本人の相手 corresponds better to the English expression, where “Japanese” is an adjective.


Tuesday, April 10, 2018

gentiles - Is modesty a positive or negative commandment?


Given that:




  1. There are two types of Mitzvoth (commandments), 'Aseh and Lo Ta'aseh (positive and negative; ie., "Thou Shalt" and "Thou Shalt Not").
    a. Positive commandments, with some exceptions can be enforced with certain types of rabbinic sanctions but no actual punishments, whereas
    b. negative commandments carry with them specific forms of punishments, delineated in the Torah or derived therefrom.




  2. There are also at least two types of Tzeni'uth (modesty), related to dress and to action*. Within those there are also forms of modesty relating to

    a. how sexually/revealingly one may dress or how sexually provocatively one may act, as well as (and seemingly separate from)
    b. the idea of not drawing too much attention to oneself generally, whether with outlandish clothing (that is not sexually revealing) or with outlandish behavior (that is not sexual in nature).




Question(s): Are all the laws of Tzeni'uth part of the same Mitzvah (or set of Mitzvoth)? Do they all stem from "Kedoshim Tihyu" ("Be 'holy'")? If it's all part of the same Mitzvah or set of Mitzvoth, is it positive or negative?


Bonus: if the different forms of modesty are all ultimately connected to 'Arayoth (dancing in the street in a neon green jumpsuit may somehow attract a sexual mate), does modesty apply to non-Jews, who, per the Shiv'ah Mitzvoth Bnei Noah (the 7 Noahide Laws), are prohibited from committing many, if not all, of the forms of sexual deviations that Jews are prohibited from committing?


*For purposes of this discussion I am including speech in the category of action.


UPDATE 6/24/11:
Fascinating discussion on the subject of hair covering, which expanded to Negi'ah and other areas of Tzeni'uth, and ultimately devolved into "AHHH, WHY ARE WE EVEN DISCUSSING THIS?? Why not just permit EVERYTHING!?" here: http://www.theyeshivaworld.com/coffeeroom/topic/covering-hair-once-married



Answer




"Modesty" is a broad term, connoting several values; let me try and list them as dos and don'ts.


Don't pray within view of someone exposed


One concept is the prohibition against reciting prayers while someone naked is within view; if I recall correctly, this is tied to the verse (Deuteronomy 23:15) "and no naked/shameful thing shall be seen within you." Hence, one question of modesty is "how covered-up must I be so that people can still pray within view of me?" For instance, Rabbi Moshe Feinstein recommended that synagogues have an opaque, five-foot-tall mechitza; that way if a woman came to synagogue "with uncovered arms and more", those exposed body parts would not be in view from the men's side (assuming the average-height woman), and the men could carry on their prayers. (The women's exposed hair does not pose a problem in most cultures today, according to Rabbi Feinstein.)


Don't stray after your eyes (Numbers 15:39)


Pretty self-explanatory


Married women should cover their hair in public (Numbers 5:18)


There's a debate whether this is a Biblical obligation or a rabbinic one (and hinted by the verse); the verse takes it for granted that a married woman would have her hair covered in public; though the Talmud (Ketubot 72a) says "from here we learn the prohibition of going in public with uncovered hair."


G-d wants us to behave humbly, without the need to grab attention for ourselves (Micah 6:8)


Listed as a positive value; intended for both men and women (and the Talmud seems to focus this one on men); the only place in this whole answer that actually uses a word with the same root as tzniut.


Be "holy" by keeping yourselves far away from arayot (forbidden relations). (Rashi, Leviticus 19:2)



There is also potentially the notion of mutual responsibility, don't make someone else sin, but that gets to the whole mess of "if she wears something flashy and he sins, do we blame her?", so let's not go there.


What about non-Jews?


Job (chapter 31) complains that he's innocent, he didn't look at other married women, not even single women! There's a lot of discussion how exactly to interpret that halachically, but recall that Job is not Jewish. Now we could debate whether he's saying he followed the letter of the law, or he played it safe by staying far away from anything prohibited.


So as far as non-Jews go, my sense is there is an implied value within their prohibition of arayot to take reasonable steps towards a society that values self-control, plus the positive, gender-neutral, Jewishness-neutral value of Micah to walk humbly with G-d. Not sure you can prove chapter-and-verse an exact requirement beyond that. (Though I must note, on the other hand, that prostitution is likely not included in the prohibition of arayot, see Rambam Ishut 1:4).


word choice - What's the difference between "gohan" and "meshi"?


In answer to my question on the difference between "gyūdon" and "gyūmeshi" I learned that "meshi" just means cooked rice. But I thought "gohan" meant cooked rice, so please, what is the difference?


I do already know that "go-" is an honorific prefix and I think I've been told that "gohan" can sometimes be used as a general word for food. But is that all there is to it?



Answer



Observe:



 飯 meshi
ご飯 gohan




They both mean the same thing, which is (cooked) rice and/or meal. Since rice is an essential part of Japanese cuisine, the two meanings very much overlap. As you said, ご〜 go- is an honorific prefix, which makes ご飯 gohan the politer alternative used in more polite speech.



昼飯 hirumeshi
昼ご飯 hirugohan



Both mean "lunch" (lit. "midday meal/rice"), but their usage differs based on politeness:



昼飯を食ってくる hirumeshi o kuttekuru - "I'll go grab a bite" (colloquial)
昼ご飯を食べてきます hirugohan o tabetekimasu - "I will go out for lunch" (polite)




(translations roughly equated to English usage)


Note that both 飯 and 食 are the same, yet the pronunciations differ widely for different politeness levels. Most words that can be formed with meshi can also be expressed using gohan.


Sometimes as part of compound words the politeness plays less of a role though and it's just the origin of the word that decides the reading:



焼き飯 yakimeshi - fried rice, Japanese word
炒飯 or チャーハン chāhan - fried rice, Chinese word



history - Was Shlomo Molcho a great kabbalist or a false messiah?



History records that a Portuguese Marano, Diego Peres (born 1500), after being spurned by Jewish adventurist David Reuveni, circumcised himself, changed his name to Shlomo Molcho, and went on a mission to convince Maranos everywhere to return to Judaism. History records, also, that he correctly predicted a flood in Rome and an earthquake in Portugal, gaining him the respect and protection from the Inquisition from Pope Clement VII. He later fled to Turkey and Eretz Israel and was known to be a student of Rabbi Joseph Karo, among others. In 1532 he was burned at the stake by Emperor Charles V of the Holy Roman Empire. See, e.g. Dimont, Max I., "Jews, God and History." Secular historians have named Molcho as a false messiah. Yet in some Hasidic circles -- especially those of Galicia and Hungary -- he is revered as a saint and Kabbalist. Which version is true?




history - Saying Rishonim or Achronim were "wrong"


People are very careful (and rightfully so) to say when they don't understand the words of the Achronim or Rishonim to not say they are/were "wrong". But rather to say "I don't understand what he means". Perhaps as well to be careful not to say "it doesn't make sense". I've seen at times the Achronim and Rishonim were also careful to write this way. However do we ever find that perhaps they wrote a later more "sharply" and did say "this doesn't make sense" or that "he is/was wrong"? At any point in history.




loanwords - What is the more common pronunciation for the r­ōmaji letter Z in Japanese?


I was on the phone with NTT the other day and things were going well (or as good as they could), until I had to spell some email address for the customer rep, and fell upon the letter 'Z'.


Instinctively, I went with 'zed' as a pronunciation, which seemed to stumble the NTT lady, so I tried a 'zee', which did not seem to elicit more comprehension...


Eventually, after trying a few more variations, I had to give up and was told to send that piece of info by email (a rather silly situation, considering I had just been giving and receiving bits of information in Japanese for 15 minutes until that point).


According to Wikipedia, pretty much any pronunciation goes:




Z; Zetto, zeddo, or zī (ゼット, ゼッド, or ズィー, though sometimes pronounced jī, ジー)



It is very possible that, while trying to figure which of the two common native pronunciations to use, I omitted to stress the second mora enough (saying 'zed' instead of a frank 'zeddo' or 'zetto'). But I'm still a bit surprised that she would stumble on this particular instance.


In your experience, is there a more common/natural pronunciation of the letter 'Z' in Japanese? Any circumstances that might dictate the choice of either?



Answer




  • ゼット is the most common pronunciation for Z.

  • ズィー is used by younger generation or by realists, but elderly and conservative people may not understand it.

  • ゼッド is rare. Actually, I have never heard of it.





Traditionally, there are several English alphabet letters that are pronounced departing from mere transcription of the sound. They are



  • デー【HL】 for D

  • エッチ【HLL】 for H

  • ブイ【HL】 for V

  • エッキス【HLLL】 for X

  • ゼット【HLL】 for Z


I (as well as many people) thought that they (particularly D and Z) are mixture of German pronunciations, but that does not necessarily seem to be the case. It may have come from some British English dialect.





  1. Among them, the following have almost replaced the old forms in present Japanese:



    • エイチ【HLL】 for H

    • エックス【HLLL】 for X


    Thus, the old form エッチ will imply "sexuality" and エッキス is used mostly to refer to the variable x by some mathematicians dragging the old habit. (There is a rumour that this pronunciation エッキス can be traced back to a certain academic school, which happens to be my alma mater. Not sure of the credibility).





  2. Younger people or "realists" will pronounce



    • ディー【HHL】 for D

    • ズィー【HHL】 for Z


    but aged or conservative people will not necessarily understand them. デー and ゼット are the most widely comprehended pronunciations.




  3. For V, there is a more realistic pronunciation:




    • ヴィー【HHL】 for V


    but I don't think this is very popular yet.




death - Before the sin, would it have been possible to be murdered?


We know that before the chet (sin) of the eating of the forbidden fruit, mankind would not physically expire and die. (Death was the punishment given for the sin - B'reishis 3:19, Shabbos 55, Ramban 2:17). What about other death? Examples would include murder (let's assume unintentional) by metal, fire, ice, or falling from great heights, or drowning. I would surmise that a person would have been able to die in such forms. But does anyone have any source for this? (Either to support or reject.) All sources I'm aware of speak of "misa" - "death" in general. I don't know if they'd include a broader definition of these forms of death.


(Let me just preempt - if you're thinking of B'rachos 33a with R' Chanina ben Dosa, I don't think it's really a raya - see Rashi, really based on Yerushalmi.)




image processing - Explanation on Haarlets


Would someone be able to give me some info or a link etc ... regarding haarlets aka Haar wavelet-like features. I'm reading several papers for my master dissertation and several of these papers briefly mention haarlets. I can't seem to really get what they are and how they are used. I apologize if this is a basic question. But i would really appreciate some clear, structured info on the subject.



Answer




Have you seen Robust Real-time Object Detection by Viola and Jones? This is probably the most widely used face detection algorithm, and also the most famous example of the use of the Haar wavelet-like features.


how to make CIC compensation filter


I gotta wrap my head around to design CIC compensation filter


I'm studying by referring these materials:



  1. Altera, "Understanding CIC compensation filters

  2. Hardware Efficient FIR Compensation Filter For Delta Sigma Modulator Analog to Digital Converters. Circuits and Systems, 2005. 48th Midwest Symposium on Saiyu Ren ; Dept. of Electr. Eng., Wright State Univ., Dayton, OH ; Siferd, R. ; Blumgold, R. ; Ewing, R.


first Altera just say "inverse sinc function" they wouldn't let me know how to realize the function except for using matlab function fir2 and how to get the coefficients of taps


so I found another reference (2) which I mentioned above.



they explain how to decide the coefficients of taps. but I couldn't figure out some equations.




they say


H(z)=a0*z^0+a1*z^-1 + ... + an*z^-n  => H(f)=h(0)+2*sigma(from 1 to (n-1)/2) h(k)*cos(2k*pi*F) where F=f/fs



Here is my first question. How is H(z) converted to H(f). If I substitute z to exp(iwT) it doesn't make sense.




second question I though a0=an=h(1). Is it correct?





finally i used matlab to calculate the coefficients of taps and i got the same coefficients in comparision with a result of the paper, but a simulation gave me a totally different and wrong data


h= [-0.70  2.09 -1.76  0.74 -1.26 0.40  0.34  0.26 0.74
-0.53 0.24 -0.74 0.04 -0.39 0.05 -0.02 0.28 0.14
0.41 -0.02 0.36 -0.02 0.41 0.14 0.28 -0.02 0.05 -
0.38 0.04 -0.74 0.24 -0.53 0.74 0.26 0.34 0.40 -
1.26 0.74 -1.76 2.09 -0.70] 41 taps

please let me know where I have to modify...


If I violate The copyright issue (because of the content of paper) please tell me and I will edit or delete this.


Here's my matlab code and plotenter image description here



clc; clear;
OSR=8
fb=125e6/2

fs=2*fb*OSR
f=[0 14 28 38 45.5 49.5 100 140 170 200 225 250 275 300 325 350 375 400 430 460 490]*10^6;

F=f/fs;
N=41;
L=[1: 1 : (N-1)/2];

S=max(L)

for i=1:S+1
A(i,1)=1;
end

for i=1:S+1
for j=2:S+1
A(i,j)=2*cos(2*pi*(j-1)*F(i));
end

end

H_sinc=((sin(OSR*pi.*F)./(OSR*sin(pi.*F)))).^2;

H_FIR=1./H_sinc;

H_IFIR(1:6)=H_FIR(1:6);

H_IFIR(1)=1;


H_IFIR(7)=0.1;

H_IFIR(8:21)=0;

H_IFIR=H_IFIR';

A_inv=inv(A);

H=inv(A)*H_IFIR;


H=H';

for i=1:S+1
H_sol(i)=H(S+2-i);
end

for i=1:20
H_sol(N-i+1)=H_sol(i);
end
f=[0:100:fs];

F=f/fs;

H_fir1=H_sol(21)+2*H_sol(1)*cos(2*pi.*F) ...
+2*H_sol(2)*cos(2*pi*2.*F) ...
+2*H_sol(3)*cos(2*pi*3.*F) ...
+2*H_sol(4)*cos(2*pi*4.*F) ...
+2*H_sol(5)*cos(2*pi*5.*F) ...
+2*H_sol(6)*cos(2*pi*6.*F) ...
+2*H_sol(7)*cos(2*pi*7.*F) ...
+2*H_sol(8)*cos(2*pi*8.*F) ...

+2*H_sol(9)*cos(2*pi*9.*F) ...
+2*H_sol(10)*cos(2*pi*10.*F) ...
+2*H_sol(11)*cos(2*pi*11.*F) ...
+2*H_sol(12)*cos(2*pi*12.*F) ...
+2*H_sol(13)*cos(2*pi*13.*F) ...
+2*H_sol(14)*cos(2*pi*14.*F) ...
+2*H_sol(15)*cos(2*pi*15.*F) ...
+2*H_sol(16)*cos(2*pi*16.*F) ...
+2*H_sol(17)*cos(2*pi*17.*F) ...
+2*H_sol(18)*cos(2*pi*18.*F) ...

+2*H_sol(19)*cos(2*pi*19.*F) ...
+2*H_sol(20)*cos(2*pi*20.*F);


figure(1), semilogx(f,db(H_fir1))
% hold on
grid on

please help me to solve this problem...




organic chemistry - Relative acidities of alkanes, alkenes, and alkynes


How does one explain the trend in bond lengths and acidity of the following hydrocarbons?


$$\begin{array}{ccc} \hline \text{Species} & \ce{C-H}\text{ bond length / Å} & \mathrm{p}K_\mathrm{a} \\ \hline \text{Ethane, }\ce{C2H6} & 1.102 & 50 \\ \text{Ethene, }\ce{C2H4} & 1.085 & 44 \\ \text{Ethyne, }\ce{C2H2} & 1.061 & 25 \\ \hline \end{array}$$


Shouldn't the shorter bonds between $\ce{C-H}$ be easier to break than longer ones, making ethane the most acidic?



Answer



You're right in that bond length, and therefore bond strength does affect acidity (see: $\ce{H2S}$, $\mathrm{p}K_\mathrm{a} = 7$ and $\ce{H2O}$, $\mathrm{p}K_\mathrm{a} = 15.7$). If we defined acidity with the following equation



$$\ce{HX -> H + X}$$


then the bond strength would indeed be the only deciding factor in the acidity of $\ce{HX}$, since the enthalpy change of that process is literally the bond dissociation energy.


However, acidity actually corresponds to the heterolytic dissociation of the $\ce{H-X}$ bond, with both electrons in the bond going to $\ce{X}$:


$$\ce{HX -> H+ + X-}$$


so bond strength isn't the only factor. In the case of ethane, ethene, and ethyne, the most important factor is the type of orbital that the electrons from the $\ce{C-H}$ bond end up in after deprotonation. For ethane, the two electrons end up in a carbon $\mathrm{sp^3}$ orbital; for ethene, an $\mathrm{sp^2}$ orbital; and for ethyne, an $\mathrm{sp}$ orbital.


Deprotonation


Now, of these three, the $\mathrm{sp}$ lone pair is the most stable, since the $\mathrm{sp}$ hybrid orbital contains the most s character ($50\%$) and therefore has the lowest energy. So, of the three carbanions, the lone pair in the acetylide ion $\ce{HC2-}$ is most stabilised, making ethyne the most acidic molecule.


The acidity of terminal alkynes is in fact pretty useful from a synthetic viewpoint, since you can deprotonate them with a strong base like $\ce{NaNH2}$, forming a carbon-based nucleophile which can then be used to make new $\ce{C-C}$ bonds.




As for why the electronic stabilisation outweighs the bond strength, it's worth looking at some quantitative data. The $\ce{H-O}$ and $\ce{H-S}$ bonds have mean bond enthalpies of $463$ and $338~\mathrm{kJ~mol^{-1}}$ respectively (source: Physical Chemistry 9th ed., Atkins & de Paula, p 932), which is a difference of $\mathbf{125~kJ~mol^{-1}}$. This can, to some extent, explain the difference in acidities of $\ce{H2O}$ and $\ce{H2S}$.



On the other hand, the dissociation energies of the $\ce{H-C\mathrm{(sp)}}$ and $\ce{H-C\mathrm{(sp^2)}}$ bonds are given in J. Phys. Chem. 1987, 91, 17-19 as $132.6$ and $116~\mathrm{kcal~mol^{-1}}$ respectively. The difference is roughly $17~\mathrm{kcal~mol^{-1}}$, which is equivalent to $\mathbf{69.5~kJ~mol^{-1}}$ - a somewhat smaller value than before. You can see why bond length variations might therefore play a smaller role in the hydrocarbons.




An alternative


Another equivalent way of looking at it is that an $\mathrm{sp}$-hybridised carbon is more electronegative than an $\mathrm{sp^2}$-hybridised carbon, which is in turn more electronegative than an $\mathrm{sp^3}$-hybridised carbon.


As mentioned earlier, an $\mathrm{sp}$ orbital has the greatest s-character, and consequently electrons in a carbon $\mathrm{sp}$ orbital experience a greater effective nuclear charge and are more tightly bound to the nucleus than electrons in $\mathrm{sp^2}$ or $\mathrm{sp^3}$ orbitals.


Of course, the $\ce{C-H}$ bond also involves a contribution from the hydrogen 1s orbital. However, the above means that the electrons in $\ce{C(sp)-H}$ bonds are more strongly attracted to the carbon nucleus than electrons in $\ce{C(sp^2)-H}$ or $\ce{C(sp^3)-H}$ bonds. This means that the $\ce{C(sp)-H}$ bond is more polarised towards carbon, leaving less electron density on hydrogen, and a greater acidity.


The amount of electron density on the hydrogen can in fact be probed using $\ce{^1H}$ NMR spectroscopy. A lower electron density translates into a higher chemical shift. Even though there is a second, unrelated, factor - anisotropic shielding - that serves to decrease the chemical shift of acetylenic hydrogens, they still tend to show up at higher chemical shifts than hydrogens on saturated hydrocarbons (~2 ppm, compared to ~1 ppm). This is a clear indication that the local electron density on a proton attached to $\ce{C(sp)}$ is less than that of a proton attached to $\ce{(sp^3)}$.


organic chemistry - What is the correct structure for trans-3,4-dichlorocyclopentene?



I have to draw the structure for trans-3,4-dichlorocyclopentene.


What position should I draw the double bond at? Should I draw it as molecule 2? Because there's a trans.


Or should I draw it as shown in molecule 1 because it didn't state?


enter image description here


I feel that molecule 2 in the diagram is correct. What do you think? Where are my mistakes?




grammar - の cannot be used as a pronoun meaning "one" for "highly abstract objects" but what is a "highly abstract object"?(amended)


(Italics are used to indicate revisions to the orginal question made in response to feedback so far)


According to "A students' guide to Japanese grammar", by Naomi McGloin, の is used as a pronoun meaning "one" for tangible or intangible objects such as 車 or 意見 but not highly abstract ones such as 力 . The following three sentences are given:




大きい車は高いが、小さいのは安い。correct


田中さんの意見は面白いが山田さんのはちょっと問題がある。 correct


日本の町人は経済的な力を持っていたが、政治的なのは持っていなかった。incorrect



Could somebody explain/define a little bit more clearly the difference between an intangible object and "a highly abstract" object illustrated by these sentences?


(Or in other words both are intangible but only 力 is "highly abstract": possibly highly abstract means "subjective" (?) but if this interpretation of "highly abstract" is correct, could anyone give a few more examples to help me nail this down?)



Answer



My grammar book (日本語文型辞典) says that (when used to mean "one"):



  • noun+ = noun+のもの


  • na-adjective+なの = na-adjective+なもの

  • (i-adjective/verb)+ = (i-adjective/verb)+もの


so:





  • 大きい車は高いが、小さい(の・もの)は安い。
    A big car is expensive, but a small one is cheap.







  • 田中さんの意見は面白いが山田さんのものはちょっと問題がある。
    Tanaka's opinion is interesting, but Yamada's one has a bit of a problem.



    Though I'm not experienced enough to be sure about about this , this sentence sounds like it might be incorrect/unnatural to me in both Japanese and English, so I think it may well be a different usage indicating a possessive, i.e:



    田中さんの意見は面白いが山田さんはちょっと問題がある。
    Tanaka's opinion is interesting, but Yamada's has a bit of a problem.







  • 日本の町人は経済的な力を持っていたが、政治的な(の・もの)は持っていなかった。
    Japanese merchants had economic power, but didn't have an economic one.



    I think this sentence wouldn't work in either English or Japanese.





For reference, here are some of the examples it gives:





  • この電話は壊れてますので、隣の部屋をお使い下さい。
    This telephone is broken, so please use the one in the next room.







  • ラーメンなら、駅前のそば屋が安くておいしいよ。
    If it's Ramen you're after, you can get [some/it] at the soba noodle shop in front of the station where it's cheap and tasty.






  • ...もっと小さくて便利なを探さなくてはならない。
    ...(I) need to search for a smaller and more convenient one.






halacha - Markup in retail, are these examples kosher?


I have noticed that Keter Judaica, the American importer for Mishkan HaTchelet seems t have some pretty outrageous markups.


Example 1: Keter Traditional Touch Tallit (M"T Tzemer A.A.) (size 55)




  • Keter: $140

  • M"T: ₪299 (roughlt $80 at the time of this posting)


Example 2: tzitzit (cotton begged) (size 6=24)



  • Keter: $13.50 ($18 at local fromm Judaica store)

  • M"T: ₪19 (roughly $5)


While I haven't done out the math here, the price difference is pretty stark, which leads to my question: are these markups actually kosher?




Monday, April 9, 2018

Poles of an analog Gaussian filter


I am trying to calculate the poles of an analog Gaussian filter. Its characteristic function, $e^{-\log(2)x^2}$, can be expanded into MacLaurin series:


$$2^{-x^2} = e^{-\log(2)x^2} = \lim_{N \to \infty} \sum^N_{k=0}{\frac{(\log(2))^k}{k!}x^{2k}}$$.


This would go to the denominator of the transfer function, so the roots of the sum are the poles of the filter. The more terms, the better the approximation. So far, so good, classic theory.


But if I calculate the poles for, say $N$=13, I get some strange display (blue dots):


poles


Just by looking at the graph, I thought to rotate them 90 degrees and keep only the left side (red points), while comparing them to the Bessel poles of the same order (green points). The circle is for reference, only, while the Bessel poles have been scaled down by $\sqrt{N}$, for comparison. Interesting enough, if I am to calculate the poles for the normalized transfer function (not the squared one), the series terms would have to be divided by an extra $2^k$, and the resulting transfer function would have to be compared with $\sqrt{|H(s)^2|}$, rather than $|H(s)|$.


I am aware that Bessel isn't Gaussian, or vice-versa, but they are two filters who deal with time-domain, rather than frequency, and their responses are quite similar, hence the comparison.


But now I am puzzled: the blue poles are symmetric on the $X$ axis, and if I were to keep the left hand side, I would end up having two extra, purely imaginary poles for odd orders (as is the case here). Rotating them by 90 degrees seems not only to solve this problem, but also to give the correct transfer function magnitude:



magnitude


The blue trace is with the original poles, left-hand side poles. One note: keeping the extra, purely imaginary poles would result in a resonance peak (not surprisingly), so I removed those and added an extra, single, real pole on $X$ axis, of magnitude $-2|\max\left({s_k}\right)|$, resulting in the current plot. The red trace is with the rotated poles (also left-hand side), while the green one is the Mathematica expression $\sqrt{e^{-\log(2)*x^2}}$ with a 0.1 offset, for better comparison. $N$=13, as above.


All these seem confusing to me: when calculating the poles from the mathematical expression (the series expansion), do we keep them as they are, or do we rotate them 90 degrees (simple multiplication with $j$), and why?



Answer



First of all, computing the poles of an (ideal) Gaussian filter is an impossible task, because its transfer function is not a rational function, and there are simply no poles. This is in contrast to the classic filter approximations, like Butterworth, Chebyshev, and Cauer filters, all of which have rational transfer functions, and, consequently, all of them have poles.


The frequency response of an ideal Gaussian filter is


$$H(\omega)=e^{-a\omega^2}\tag{1}$$


The corresponding transfer function is a function of $s=j\omega$:


$$G(s)=e^{-a(s/j)^2}=e^{as^2}\tag{2}$$


which is of course not rational, and which doesn't have any finite poles.



What you did is compute a rational approximation by developing $1/G(s)$ into a power series, and using only a finite number of terms. However, since you used $\omega$ as a complex variable instead of $s$, the poles are turned by $90$ degrees. This was already mentioned in the comments. The correct way of doing this is as follows:


$$1/G(s)=e^{-as^2}=\sum_{k=0}^{\infty}\frac{(-a)^k}{k!}s^{2k}\tag{3}$$


Using only a finite number of terms gives the following rational approximation of $G(s)$:


$$G(s)\approx\frac{1}{\sum_{k=0}^{n}\frac{(-a)^k}{k!}s^{2k}}\tag{2}$$


the poles of which are of course the roots of the denominator polynomial.


parshanut torah comment - מחני נא -- Moshe's real name isn't mentioned


In Shemot 32:32, Moshe tells Hashem:




וְעַתָּה אִם תִּשָּׂא חַטָּאתָם וְאִם אַיִן מְחֵנִי נָא מִסִּפְרְךָ אֲשֶׁר כָּתָבְתָּ:


And now, if You forgive their sin But if not, erase me now from Your book, which You have written.



Many commentators have pointed out (see Moshe's name is missing) that Moshe's name is not written at all in Parshat Tetzaveh (immediately preceding Ki Tisa, the source of this pasuk).


However, Moshe's original name is never mentioned in the Torah (see Did Moshe have an earlier name?). Could this also be because of מחני נא מספרך?


Are there any sources that suggest this?




inorganic chemistry - How to prepare iron(II) carbonate from iron(III) chloride?


Now, this is an awkward reaction first of all. I know how to prepare $\ce{Fe2(CO3)3}$ from $\ce{FeCl3}$:



$$\ce{2FeCl3 + 3Na2CO3 -> 6NaCl + Fe2(CO3)3}$$


But the question is asking for $\ce{FeCO3}$. It seems to be an impossible task but since this was asked in a public examination, does anybody know how to prepare $\ce{FeCO3}$ from $\ce{FeCl3}$ (in one, two or three reactions)?




grammar - Is this the correct way of saying attending a school?


My friend and I were having a debate.



Basically, the line 「あんたは一人でこの家から学校に通っている。」 in an anime was translated as "And you live here alone, attending school."


A direct literal translation of the Japanese seems to give a different English sentence. However, my question is: XからYに通っている the normal way of saying "(You) attend Y"? He seems thinks that saying "You go back and forth from home to school" is a weird, if not too wordy, way to say "attending school".


(Added after Chris' answer:)


I'm providing the whole response from the character in the anime (for context).


ゆうむら家の3人は、半年前にこの家を購入し、転居してきた。間もなくあんたの両親はアメリカに赴任し、あんたは一人でこの家から学校に通っている。


The subtitled translation:


The Yuumura family of three bought this house half a year ago and moved in. Soon after, your parents went to America to their new job posts. And you live here alone, attending school.



Answer



First of all, note that attend is not equivalent to enroll. A quick Google search on "define: attend" reveals the following meanings (emphasis mine).




  1. Be present at (an event, meeting, or function).

  2. Go regularly to: "all children are required to attend school".


"Attend" emphasizes the act of going somewhere regularly, as does 通{かよ}う. In other words, I would say that X大学に通{かよ}っている normally means "I commute to university X" (which is in line with the definition of "attend" above) and X大学の学生です is the correct way of saying "I am a student at university X."


Further Information


Let's break down the sentence 「あんたは一人でこの家から学校に通っている」.



  1. Without context, I would probably translate it as "You are commuting to school from this house by yourself."

  2. Assuming that you're using the verb 通{かよ}う instead of 通{とお}る—which is usually used to mean "passing through"—I think that this sentence is emphasizing the act of going to school rather than the act of being enrolled in school.



As stated above, if you want to emphasize the fact that you're enrolled at university X, I would use a phrase like "X大学の学生です." If you want to emphasize the fact that you're commuting there every day, I would say "X大学に通っています." In either case, あなたは, 一人で, and この家から are all superfluous and can generally be implied from context.


Now that you've made it clear that this line comes from an anime and is not intended to be a stand-alone statement, the sentence (and superfluous information) makes a bit more sense. Remember, Japanese is an extremely contextual language and the proper translation will often require a few sentences of context. In this case, the sentence is emphasizing



  • the change in topic from the Yomura family to "you" through the use of あんた (which additionally hints that the speaker is a woman)

  • that "you" are commuting to school alone even though other people don't (not enough context to say who "you" are being compared with in this case)

  • that "you" are commuting from this house instead of another one (again, not enough context to say precisely which other houses "your" house is being compared with, but presumably the fact that it's your house is important)


Note that all of this information is added for emphasis but in a normal conversation would not be strictly necessary.


rambam - Are the works of Maimonides treated as divinely inspired?


How are the writings of Moses Maimonides typically "seen" by Jews?


Are his works considered to be directly inspired by God (such as the Tanakh) and therefore infallible, or are they considered to be "good writings" (such as an Encyclopedia, or any secular historical work), prone to error, but still an excellent source of information?




halacha - Who should say the half kaddish after reading the Torah?


Who is supposed to say the chatzi kaddish after the torah reading? Is it the person who read the torah or an ovel who is saying kaddish?





metallurgy - How quickly will steel lose structural strength from a heat flash?


I want to know if a sustained jet fuel burn around steel has the ability to make the steel structurally unsound. It seems like any applied heat that effects steel will be a kind of "heat flash": a sudden, and possibly quite short-lived, burst of heat. In this situation, we assume steel has a melting point of $\mathrm{2750\ ^\circ F\ (1510\ ^\circ C)}$ and that jet fuel (the source of the heat burst) burns at a maximum of $\mathrm{1500\ ^\circ F\ (\approx 816\ ^\circ C)}$.


Some factors I believe need to be taken into place include the strength of bonds in steel, the thickness of the steel in question, and the distance from the heat source. Is a sudden heat flash enough to cause steel to weaken? Are there any other factors that need to be taken into consideration?




conversion to judaism - Can a convert (ger tzedek) serve on a beis din to annul a non-convert's vows?



If I understand correctly, there are certain cases where a convert can't serve on a beis din judging a native-born Jew. Yet when we break into groups of three for hataras nedarim (annulment of vows), I've never seen anyone stop and ask, "excuse me please but are you a convert?" (Generally a good idea as this would be incredibly hurtful.) I'd strongly assume this is okay, but does anyone have a source?



Answer



The isur comes from som tasim alecha melech- all appointment that you do should be from your brethren. This refers to positions where you are forcing people into judgement. But in a "non-appointed" position where the baal din or the noder comes of his own volition, that isn't a problem. (Aruch Hashulchan C.M. 7:1)


organic chemistry - Is metallic sodium a strong base?



Chemical properties: Sodium metal and sodium amide ($\ce{NaNH2}$ ) are strong bases. They react with ethyne to form sodium acetylide with the liberation of hydrogen gas.



How can a metal considered a base (that too strong)? To act as base it should either donate a pair of electrons (in this case it's single electron) or accept proton or give $\ce{OH-}$ ion but here it's not qualifying any one. So is that statement wrong?



Formation of monosodium ethynide: $$\ce{HC#CH + Na -> HC#C^-Na+ + 1/2H2}\tag{13.59}$$


Formation of disodium ethynide: $$\ce{HC#C^-Na+ + Na -> Na+C^{-} #C^-Na+ + 1/2H2}\tag{13.60}$$



Source: NCERT 11, Hydrocarbons, Page 386




Answer



No, stricly speaking metallic sodium is not a strong base. Strictly speaking, metallic sodium is not a base at all. (Sodium amide clearly is one, though: due to the amide part.)


Not everything that reacts with an acid is a base. If an acid reacts to form hydrogen and there are no hydrides present, that is a very strong indicator that the reaction was not an acid-base reaction but a redox reaction. And that is what metallic sodium is: a strong reducing agent.


Just because reducing agents can react with acids (proton donors) to generate hydrogen radicals and thus nascent hydrogen gas does not make them bases. For the reaction partner of an acid to be a base, it must accept (and keep!, at least to a certain extent) the proton donated by the acid — or, in the Lewis theory, it must donate an electron pair.


particles - Difference between で and の when referring to "usage"


Simplest example would be when you are getting a coffee and ask for a paper cup. It seems that both 紙の and 紙で are acceptable. What are the differences?



Answer



My (non-native) intuition here is that by using の you are picking an attribute of the cup, which can really be any salient attribute it has. Syntactically, you are just omitting the noun after the particle. By using で, on the other hand, you are choosing among a given set of options. I most frequently hear this kind of で when picking a meal size (for example 小, 中 or 大).


Look at it this way - you can also answer this question by saying 紙のカップで, but not 紙のカップの.


minhag - Siyum Mishnayos on Erev Pesach


Today I learned of the minhag to make a siyum bechorim only on gemara. I understand the logic, but is there a source for it? This came up because I'm scheduled to make a siyum on the Mishna (first time on all 6) around Pesach so I volunteered the siyum at my local shtieble.




halacha - Can a Jewish woman sing in front of a non-Jewish man?



Suppose I am a Jewish woman. Suppose I am in a taxi (or similar semiprivate place) with a male cab driver who I am quite sure is not Jewish. May I sing in front of him?


Hypothesis: That since the prohibition of kol isha does not apply to non-Jewish men, I will not be guilty of lifnei iver by singing in this situation. Correct?



Answer



According to this Rivevos Ephraim 5:491 it should not be a problem since the problem is making a man stumble and come to impure thoughts and its assur during kiras shema and these things are not applicable to a non Jew. See the tshuva inside. There are two Rabbanim who answered in the tshuvah.


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product recommendation - Chumash with Shoresh highlighted


I remember seeing a Chumash that showed the shoresh highlighted for every word, does anyone know what this Chumash is called (and where it can be purchased)?



Answer




I have a (paper) book called אמרי מדריך that seems to be what you're looking for. It highlights the shoresh, showing the other letters in outline, and it includes letters from the shoresh which were dropped in conjugation in minuscule type. The book is entirely in Hebrew and I can't read the introduction, so I don't know what other notational conventions they are using. (I can't read the footnotes either, alas.)


I do not remember where I got it, but it now appears to be available online (h/t DoubleAA). This sefer is also printed in full in the back of the Artscroll Chinuch (children's) Chumashim. Those Chumashim are available in every Jewish book store.


Here is a sample inside:


text


Here is the full cover page:


cover page


And the back side, which shows a copyright date of 2005 and a name and address:


publisher info


grammar dikduk - Zechuto Yagen/Tagen Alenu?


Why is it that many people say זכותו יגן עלינו - according to grammar, shouldn't it be תגן עלינו since זכות is feminine?


I guess I am just looking for a justification of the general practice.




punctuation - Pronunciation of interpoint when listing items


話者の希望・意向を表す文や働きかけの文は来ない。

This is a case when interpoint (中黒) is used for listing like a conjunction. I wonder how would a native speaker pronounce such an expression?



  • Simply きぼういこう

  • きぼう (pause) いこう

  • or きぼうといこう, きぼうやいこう, i.e. inserting some context-appropriate conjunction word between items.



Answer




The 中黒 is used as punctuation and is only part of written language (文語体) and does not represent anything in spoken language (口語体). (You will find no 中黒 in bedtime stories.) When reading to yourself, or to someone reading the text next to you, the 中黒 would simply be ignored, with possibly a short pause between the words.


If you are reading, say, a dictionary entry out loud to someone not seeing the text, you can insert a や or と, as appropriate, to avoid mistaking the two words for a single one.


transitivity - Please help me understand more about intransitive verb and transitive verb


I will give a sentence as an example:



本が深く教えてなかった。



The first question: Could things like book or door or etc... become subject of a transitive verb ?


The second question: Could a transitive verb work without an object ?



Answer



本が深く教えてなかった sounds unnatural and hardly makes sense to me. In casual conversations, we usually say, for example, 本を読んでもよく分からなかった instead, with "I" as the implicit subject.



Your first question is covered in this question: In Japanese, can we say an object asks a question?


As for your second question, yes it's sometimes possible to omit an object. For example, you don't have to repeat the same object again in a conversation like this:



A: その本を読みましたか。 Did you read the book?
B: いいえ、まだです。 No, not yet.
A: では、読んでください。 Then please read it.



However many transitive verbs would make little sense if they completely lack the object. You don't usually say "I say" without specifying what you say. It's better to use an intransitive verb which have a similar meaning (e.g., there is a word "to chat" which does not require an object)


Sunday, April 8, 2018

acid base - What is the oxidation state of Mn in HMn(CO)5?



What is the oxidation state of $\ce{Mn}$ in $\ce{HMn(CO)5}$? If $\ce{H}$ has an oxidation state of $+1$, then $\ce{Mn}$ should have oxidation state of $-1$, which I'm not sure is possible.


On the other hand, if $\ce{H}$ has an oxidation state of $-1$, then $\ce{Mn}$ has an oxidation state of $+1$. However, Wikipedia says:



The pKa of $\ce{HMn(CO)5}$ in water is $7.1$.



This means that the $\ce{Mn(CO)5}^-$ complex exists, implying a $-1$ oxidation state for $\ce{Mn}$. Again, I am not sure that a metal can adopt a negative oxidation state.



Answer



On negative oxidation states, in general


Although it's usually a topic that's covered relatively late in a chemistry education, negative oxidation states for transition metals[1] are actually quite alright. On the Wikipedia list of oxidation states, there are quite a number of negative oxidation states. Some textbooks have tables which only show positive oxidation states, but good authors will be careful to add a disclaimer along the lines of "only 'common' oxidation states are listed".


The key is in the ligand that the metal is paired with. In metal ions with positive oxidation states, the ligands that they pick up tend to be Lewis bases, like $\ce{H2O}$, $\ce{Cl-}$, $\ce{NH3}$, ... This should "make sense" intuitively, because the positively charged metal ion wants to gain electron density, and these ligands are happy to give electron density to it.



In $\ce{Mn(CO)5-}$, the ligand is carbon monoxide: a very poor Lewis base, but it does possess low-lying π* orbitals. In the parlance of coordination chemistry, CO is a poor σ-donor, but a great π-acceptor. This means it tends to seek out metal centres which are relatively electron-rich instead of electron-poor, and thus it makes sense that metals with a negative oxidation state are its preferred partners. [I'll defer a full explanation of the $\ce{M-CO}$ bonding to a proper inorganic textbook.]


It turns out that it's actually quite difficult to find examples of carbonyl complexes with positive oxidation states.[2] Nearly all carbonyl complexes have the metal in oxidation states of zero or lower: see, e.g. $\ce{[Cr(CO)6]}$, $\ce{[Fe(CO)4]^2-}$, $\ce{Ni(CO)4}$, and of course, $\ce{[Mn(CO)5]-}$. Another common feature is that all of these complexes obey the 18-electron rule.




On [HMn(CO)5]


So, back to the question of the oxidation state in $\ce{[HMn(CO)5]}$... IUPAC has the final say on oxidation states;[3,4] see also this writeup by Martin. Quoting from ref. 4,



Oxidation state equals the charge of an atom after its homonuclear bonds have been divided equally and heteronuclear bonds assigned to the bond partners according to Allen electronegativity [...]



Following this, we have to assign the electrons in the $\ce{Mn-H}$ bond to the hydrogen, since hydrogen is more electronegative than manganese on the Allen scale (3.30 and 2.75 respectively). There is also evidence that in metal carbonyl hydrides like these, the hydrogen bears a partial negative charge, although this argument is not without its caveats.[5] Therefore, the oxidation state of $\ce{Mn}$ should be +1. However, IUPAC offers a way out of this:




[...] except when the electronegative atom is bonded reversibly as a Lewis-acid ligand, in which case it does not obtain that bond’s electrons.



According to this, it is possible to have exceptions to the general algorithm for determining oxidation state in the previous quotation, and there is a case to be made for this exception being valid here: the electronegative atom ($\ce{H}$) is indeed bonded reversibly ($\mathrm pK_\mathrm a = 7.1$) as a Lewis acid ($\ce{H+}$). If we accept this line of argument, then $\ce{H}$ does not "obtain" the two electrons in the $\ce{Mn-H}$ bond, and the oxidation state of $\ce{Mn}$ returns to −1, which is perhaps more in line with our chemical intuition.


I leave it to the reader to draw a conclusion for themselves; but this is an excellent illustration of the most important lesson here: oxidation states have their limits, and should not always be taken as meaningful descriptors of the chemical bonding in a species, especially when ambiguity is present, since this makes their assignment essentially arbitrary. If we assign an oxidation state of −1 to hydrogen here, it doesn't magically make the complex any less acidic than it was before. And IUPAC are aware of it (ref. 4):



The applications of OS in chemistry are wide and deal with a cornucopia of chemical compounds and materials. It is therefore not surprising that, for some compounds, one value does not fit all uses, or that dedicated measurements or computations are needed to ascertain the actual OS. In those rare cases when the most convenient OS becomes a matter of choice, this fact must be clearly stated.



Refs. 3 and 4 make for excellent (and fairly accessible) reading on the topic, for those wishing to find out more about these edge cases. Both can be accessed without a subscription.




Notes and references





  1. Negative oxidation states for non-transition metals exist (e.g. alkalides), but these are probably more "exotic" than organometallic complexes.




  2. They do exist, for example $\ce{[Ir(CO)6]^3+}$, although the bonding situation is markedly different (as evidenced by, e.g., IR spectroscopy).




  3. Karen, P.; McArdle, P.; Takats, J. Toward a comprehensive definition of oxidation state (IUPAC Technical Report). Pure Appl. Chem. 2014, 86 (6), 1017–1081. DOI: 10.1515/pac-2013-0505.





  4. Karen, P.; McArdle, P.; Takats, J. Comprehensive definition of oxidation state (IUPAC Recommendations 2016). Pure Appl. Chem. 2016, 88 (8), 831–839. DOI: 10.1515/pac-2015-1204.




  5. Sweany, R. L.; Owens, J. W. Evidence for a negative charge on hydrogen for some metal carbonyl hydrides. J. Organomet. Chem. 1983, 255 (3), 327–334. DOI: 10.1016/S0022-328X(00)99326-4.




grammar - Acceptability of 〜ようとしよう vs. 〜ことにしよう


Question from pg. 55 of 新完全マスター:



あさっては大雨【おおあめ】が降【ふ】るそうだよ。ハイキングは来週【らいしゅう】( )。



The choices available are:



a. 行【い】こうとしようよ



b. 行【い】くことにしようよ


c. 行【い】くようになろうよ



According to the textbook, the correct answer is b, though I am confused as to why a is invalid.


As far as I understand, a would translate to something like "let's try to go next week", where as b would translate to "let's decide to go next week".


Both choices seem to make sense, and I am seeking an explanation as to why b is preferable over a, and furthermore, perhaps a more general rule for determining which construct to use.


c, on the other hand, does not make much sense to me, though if there is something I should be aware of (perhaps it makes more sense than I think it does?), I would also like to know.


Any clarification would be appreciated.



Answer



Even without any context to go with, only [b. 行くことにしようよ] is correct as a phrase. We would never say [a. 行こうとしようよ] or [c. 行くようになろうよ] in any situation.



The problem with [a. 行こうとしようよ] is that it is double-volitional (行こう & しよう) and it is ungrammatical. It is grammatical to say 「行くとしよう」 or 「行こうとする」 in single-volitional, but not 「行こうとしよう」 in double. Though it is ungrammatical, it sounds a little "better" than [c. 行くようになろうよ].



As far as I understand, a. would translate to something like "let's try to go next week"



Your translation is single-volitional, not double. 「行こうとしようよ」 means something like "Let's try to try going next week.", which is why it is an incorrect answer.


[c. 行くようになろうよ] sounds pretty -- for a lack of words -- "hillarious"; It is ungrammatical and it makes close to no sense. The 「なろうよ」 part is just out of place. One could say 「ともだちになろうよ!」= "Let's become friends!", but not 「行くことになろうよ」.


halacha - Can a Jew sell a sefer Torah to a non-Jew? Why or why not?


A question was raised whether a non-Jew can run a Judaica store. My thought on that was it depended on what types of judaica he sold. I doubted that a sofer would sell him mezuzah parchments, tefillin or sefer Torahs. Also, I saw a video of a church using a sefer Torah in its services (opening it up from end to end and wrapping it around congregants; oy!) Is there a halachic prohibition to selling a sefer Torah to a non-Jew?




particles - Replacing は with って


So I was talking to this girl, and she used the って in a rather odd way (at least one that I'm not acquainted with), I gave it some research and found out that って can replace は giving some kind of softer tone to the sentence.


Like 「マギーはかわいいね」 would become 「マギーってかわいいね」.


So the page where I found it was so vague, and it didn't clarify when to use it this way or anything.


So, could anyone help me with this one?



Thanks in advance.




talmud gemara - Is every mishna mentioned in the Bavli?


On a previous question that I asked, one correspondent pointed out the existence of a Mishnaic index, which lists every page of the early rabbinic literature on which there is a reference (or allusion) to each individual mishna. I would like to know if in the course of discussing individual mishnayot, the Bavli ends up referencing every single mishna altogether, or if some go totally unmentioned. Would a person who learns Mishna only through Shas Bavli still end up encountering the entire text?



Answer



Not every Mishna is mentioned in the Bavli. As a counterexample (selected at random) the opening phrase of Keilim 14:3 does not appear in the Bavli.


image processing - Understanding the Gabor filter function


I need to implement a script for generating features from an input image by using the Gabor filter. I have no past experience of wavelets and I'm just learning Fourier analysis (I understand the basic idea behind Fourier analysis and transform) so they can't help me to understand Gabor filter, because I need to have an implementation done in a week. I don't need to understand the foundations of the Gabor filter function, but I would want to understand to some extent of what it is and what does it do. What are the parameters? What do they mean? What is the output of the function? For example this is the formula I copied from Wikipedia:


$$g(x,y;\lambda, \theta, \psi, \sigma,\gamma) = \exp\left(-\frac{x'^2+\gamma^2 y'^2}{2\sigma^2}\right)\exp\left(i\left(2\pi\frac{x'}{\lambda}+\psi\right)\right)$$


Now my obvious question is: What does this mean? What does the variables mean? According to Wikipedia:


$x, y$: I assume these coordinates specify the pixel value of an image at coordinates $(x,y)$ (2. This is OK, understood)


$\lambda$: represents the wavelength of the sinusoidal factor (Sinusoidal factor, huh? 3a. How do you select it? 3b. Where does it come from? 3c. Is it an arbitrary number or what? Freely chosen?)


$\theta$: represents the orientation of the normal to the parallel stripes of a Gabor function (4. What does that mean?)


$\psi$: is the phase offset (5. offset of what? How is this value determined? Is it freely chosen?)



$\sigma$: is the sigma/standard deviation of the Gaussian envelope (6. Need more explanation...)


$\gamma$: is the spatial aspect ratio, and specifies the ellipticity of the support of the Gabor function (7. Again need more details and more explanation)


And most importantly:


$$g(x,y;\lambda, \theta, \psi, \sigma,\gamma) = X$$



  1. What is the output value $X$? What does it mean?


As I mentioned I don't need thorough explanation of the theory, because I bet it is long and reading a 1000 page book on unknown subject is not an option for me right now. I need to have have a black-box understanding of this function so that I can implement it in code and most importantly understand what is the input and what is the output.


Thank you for any help!! =)


P.S.



I read this post:


https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/259877/value-of-x-y-in-computing-gabor-filter-function


but it doesn't answer my question thorough enough :)



Answer



A matlab implementation is in this answer: https://dsp.stackexchange.com/a/14201/5737


1) The wikipedia formula is a little bit too general.


2) If you know the basics of the with Fourier transform then you empirically know that: The image is viewed as being formed by superimposing a series of sinusoidal waves of various frequencies oriented in all kind of directions. Each "pixel" in the transform tells us the "intensity" of such a wave. The position of the "pixel" tells us the frequency and orientation of the wave. In practice, one wants to select only certain waves, having a specific frequency and a specific orientation.


So there you have it: The Gabor transform is one of many so called band pass filters that allows you to "cut" the Fourier transform and isolate only specific information. Another important information is that each Fourier "pixel" is a complex value (real and imaginary part)


3) Parameters: Two parameters are already shown:


3.a) The tuning frequency $f_0$, or tuning period $P_0$, or $\lambda$ establish to what kind of sinus wave the filter will respond best. ( $f = 1/P_0 = 1/\lambda$ or $f=\pi/\lambda$ depending on the specific implementation ) Basically, a smaller $P_0$ means a denser sinus wave. A larger $P_0$ means larger waves. $P_0$ is in pixels (3, 5, 30, etc. pixels) Don't go under 3 pixels or beyond $W/2$ or you get nasty effects. $W$ is the width of the image, if the image is square. You specify this using P0 parameter in the matlab code.



3.b) Central angle. These waves can have any directions. You want to select only waves at specific angle. So, the second parameter is the tuning angle, $\theta_0$ or $\theta$ in your formula. Usually, in radians. Orient in matlab code.


One cannot isolate only a certain frequency or a certain orientation. (Search for uncertainty principle in the textbooks. Yes, is similar to the one in physics) But one can tune how much of the nearby frequencies will leak. The next two parameters specify that:


3.c) $\Delta F$, frequency bandwidth expressed in octaves. Usefull values, 1.5, 2, 3. Larger values means capturing a broader range of frequencies. There is a price for a tighter bandpass, a poorer spatial localization. Why, again, textbook. FBW in matlab code.


3.d) $\Delta \theta$ the angle bandwidth. Expressed in radians. $\pi/3$ or $\pi/2$ works just fine. ABW in matlab code.


The relation between $\Delta f$, $\Delta \theta$ from matlab code and $\sigma, \gamma$ from Wikipedia have a formula but is not essential for understanding Gabor. $\psi$ is again not important for basic understanding.


So you have it: $X$ from Wikipedia is a 2D matrix of numbers containing a convolution mask. You take the original image, filter it with the convolution mask and get another image. This new image is the "Gabor response" for the original image.


The matlab code does these two steps together. Constructs the Gabor filter with the specified parameters and performs convolution. The results ReConv,ImConv are the responses. Each response "pixel" have a real and an imaginary part. If you want to use this code you usually must compute the energy for the response: $E = \sqrt{a^2+b^2}$ where $a$ is the real part of the response (ReConv) and $b$ is the imaginary part (ImConv), for each pixel.


There you have it: 1) Build a Gabor filter specifying $P_0, \theta_0, \Delta f, \Delta \theta$ 2) Convolute your image with the filter. You will get two values per each pixel. 3) Compute the energy $E$ and get the intensity of the response for each pixel in the original image


Another intuition: Suppose you want to select edges stretching on an orientation perpendicular to $\pi/6$ and a certain width of 20 pixels. You can build a Gabor filter with $P_0 \approx 20, \theta_0 = \pi/6, \Delta f = 2, \Delta \theta = pi/2$. TAKE CARE that there is no equal relation between the dimension of your edge and the $P_0$ parameter. You should try various values and see what works best. The other parameters ($\Delta f, \Delta \theta$) touch them when you have some experience tuning the first two.


Hope it helps!



Cristi


Update


Here is a site which allows you to play a bit with Gabor parameters and note the results: http://www.cogsci.nl/pages/gabor-generator.php


After a quick look, both freqnency and angle bandwidths are tied together as "Standard Deviation in pixels ... to the Gauss envelope". The rest of the parameters are easily identified. However, note that there are numerical differences! Eg. the phase can be expressed in 0-1 interval or 0-$\pi$ interval.


Saturday, April 7, 2018

fourier transform - why do we use $X(e^{jomega})$ instead of $X(jomega) $ in Discrete Time FT


I am studying DT-FT. But I cannot figure out why we use $X(e^{j\omega})$ instead of $ X(j\omega) $ in DT FT



Thanks in advance..



Answer



The argument $e^{j\omega}$ emphasizes the $2\pi$-periodicity of the discrete-time Fourier transform (DTFT) of a sequence. Furthermore, if the $\mathcal{Z}$-transform $X(z)$ of the sequence $x[n]$ exists and if the unit circle $|z|=1$ is inside the region of convergence, then the DTFT of the sequence is simply obtained by evaluating $X(z)$ on the unit circle $z=e^{j\omega}$.


That's the same thing as with the continuous Fourier transform and the Laplace transform, referred to in your previous question.


Inorganic reactions related to nascent hydrogen




Nascent hydrogen is prepared by


(A) $\ce{Na}$ and $\ce{C2H5OH}$
(B) $\ce{Al}$ and $\ce{NaOH}$
(C) $\ce{Zn}$ and dil. $\ce{H2SO4}$
(D) All of these




My attempt


I know that option (A) & option (C) are correct option. But don't know about option (C) and in the answer all of them are correct.


Can someone provide the complete reaction about option (B) and its important information such as similar reactions or mechanism?



Answer



Zinc and sulfuric acid react to form nascent hydrogen. From chem-guide.blogspot.com (emphasis mine):



[…] if ordinary hydrogen is passed through acidified $\ce{KMnO4}$ it does not get decolourised. However, if zinc pieces are added to the same solution, bubbles of hydrogen rise up through the solution and the colour is discharged due to the reduction of $\ce{KMnO4}$ by nascent hydrogen.


$$ \begin{align} \ce{KMnO4 + \underset{molecular}{H2} + H2SO4 &-> \text{No reaction}} \\ \ce{Zn + H2SO4 &-> ZnSO4 + \underset{nascent hydrogen}{2H}} |\times 5 \\ \ce{2 kMnO4 + H2SO4 + 10 [H] &-> K2SO4 + 2 MnSO4 + 8 H2O} \\ \hline \ce{5 Zn + 8 H2SO4 + 2 KMnO4 &-> 5 ZnSO4(aq) + K2SO4 + 2 MnSO4 + 8 H2O} \end{align} $$




See this youtube video for more information.


As for the reaction given in option (B), see previous SE questions: this, this and this.


matlab - Power Spectral Density of Digital Modulations


I want to simulate the power spectral densities of different modulations in MATLAB (without Simulink). Unfortunately I have only very basic understanding of signal processing, hence I struggle with this topic. Currently I have a very simple spectrum like this: Spectrum without modulations There are different objects (A and B in the picture above) sending signals on different frequencies. I am not simulating any bits or calculating a sine, I am just assuming that there is something going on on a certain frequency with a certain power level.


Now, I want to simulate different digital modulations, e.g. PSK, BPSK, GMSK, FSK. I understand that the spectrum should look something like this: Spectrum with digital modulations There is not a single center frequency, but also side bands. A and B shall illustrate different modulations. My question now is, how can I calculate these different modulations? In text books I may find figures displaying the 'power spectral density' of ASK, but often times there is no formula how to calculate this. I guess the spectral density depends on the actual bit sequence, but I just need the envelope.


In one text book ("Digital Modulation Techniques" by F. Xiong) I found this formula for ASK: $$\Phi_s(f) = {A^2T \over 4} \mathrm{sinc}^2\big[T(f - f_c)] + {A^2 \over 4} \delta(f - f_c)\big]$$ where $T$ is bit duration, $A$ is carrier amplitude, $f_c$ is carrier frequency. At first I found this formula promising, because it does not require a bit sequence, but I do not understand the last addend.




  • Are there any formulas like this for other modulation techniques?

  • If not, how could I calculate these graphs?



Answer




At first I found this formula promising, because it does not require a bit sequence,



That's the point about PSDs: They are an expectation value of a stochastic process! That is, the randomness (in this case, the data you're transmitting) is being "averaged away".


Deriving the spectral shape of any modulation (including the pulse shaping, don't forget that – you don't want to end up with a result like the formula you cite, as that is hardly band-limited!) is actually not that hard: You find a formula for the autocorrelation of the signal, and fourier transform that, and then you find the expectation. The trick is in finding a suitable form of the autocorrelation formula!




but I do not understand the last addend.



That's a speciality of ASK: Most constellations are designed so that the mean of the information symbols is 0; that's not the case for ASK.


To make it short: The PSD $\Phi_{vv}$ of the baseband signal $v$, consisting of a sequence of information symbols $I_n$ with variance $\sigma_i^2$ and mean $\mu_i$, modulated at a symbol period $T$ with a pulse $g(t)$ (the pulse's spectrum being $G(f)$) is (from Proakis "Digital Communications", 3rd ed., eq. 4-4-17, on page 207):


$$\Phi_{ii}(f) = \frac{\sigma_i^2}{T} \left\lvert G(f) \right\rvert^2 + \frac{\mu_i^2}{T^2} \sum\limits_{m=-\infty}^{\infty} \left\lvert G\left(\frac mT\right) \right\rvert^2\delta\left(f-\frac mT\right)\tag{4-4-17}$$


where $\delta$ is the dirac delta distribution.


This applies to all linear modulations – PSK, QAM, ASK, OOK, but not to non-linear ones (FSK etc).


In the case of the example you cite, a rectangular pulse shaper $g(t)$ was chosen, which is $1$ for the period $-\frac T2, \frac T2$ around a "symbol time", and $0$ else. That one has a $\DeclareMathOperator{\sinc}{sinc}\sinc$ Fourier transform shape. That's where your $\sinc^2$ comes from!


The second term, the $\frac{A^2}4 \delta$ is what the sum in eq. $(4-4-17)$ collapses to, because the $\sinc$ is zero in every $mT$ but for $m=0$.


As said above, most constellations are designed to have zero mean ($\mu_i = 0$), so that the sum term just disappears, and your spectral shape is only defined by the spectrum of your pulse. (Only ASK and OOK differ, as far as commonly used modulations are concerned, as far as I can tell.)



Your formula uses $(f-f_c)$ instead of $f$, because it's already the bandpass signal's shape. Don't do that to you! Just consider the signal spectra in baseband, because we can mathematically shift those anywhere we like (especially by an $f_c$).


If you don't have access to good literature: Proakis 3rd ed can be had only for less than a fancy coffee at an American coffee house chain at online used book sellers. It's not my favourite edition of the book, as it cuts the math parts where the second edition really excelled, but it's still a very solid book, and as far as I can see, the cheapest edition of the "very established" digital comms books (being Proakis, Sklar, Tse/Viswanath, and, if you're German, Kammeyer). I like Lapidoth's book, too, and it can be had for free on his website. (update: I just found out that you can get Tse online, too, which is awesome! Might be a bit too advanced, though.)


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