Wednesday, March 6, 2019

Is the Laplace transform redundant?


The Laplace transform is a generalization of the Fourier transform since the Fourier transform is the Laplace transform for s=jω (i.e. s is a pure imaginary number = zero real part of s).




Reminder:


Fourier transform: X(ω)=x(t)ejωtdt


Laplace transform: X(s)=x(t)estdt



Besides, a signal can be exactly reconstructed from its Fourier transform as well as its Laplace transform.


Since only a part of the Laplace transform is needed for the reconstruction (the part for which (s)=0), the rest of the Laplace transform ((s)0) seems to be unuseful for the reconstruction...


Is it true?


Also, can the signal be reconstructed for another part of the Laplace transform (e.g. for (s)=5 or (s)=9)?


And what happens if we compute a Laplace transform of a signal, then changing only one point of the Laplace transform, and compute the inverse transform: do we come back to the original signal?




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