The Laplace transform is a generalization of the Fourier transform since the Fourier transform is the Laplace transform for s=jω (i.e. s is a pure imaginary number = zero real part of s).
Reminder:
Fourier transform: X(ω)=∫x(t)e−jωtdt
Laplace transform: X(s)=∫x(t)e−stdt
Besides, a signal can be exactly reconstructed from its Fourier transform as well as its Laplace transform.
Since only a part of the Laplace transform is needed for the reconstruction (the part for which ℜ(s)=0), the rest of the Laplace transform (ℜ(s)≠0) seems to be unuseful for the reconstruction...
Is it true?
Also, can the signal be reconstructed for another part of the Laplace transform (e.g. for ℜ(s)=5 or ℑ(s)=9)?
And what happens if we compute a Laplace transform of a signal, then changing only one point of the Laplace transform, and compute the inverse transform: do we come back to the original signal?
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