This question has been asked (and answered) on this forum before, but my question is when is the cutoff after which it is considered eating before shachris (as opposed to eating AFTER maariv). Specifically, if my work requires me to be up all night (which it has), I would wake up around 10 pm, do maariv, eat "breakfast", report to work, and around 3 am or 4 am, have "lunch". Is this permissible?
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digital communications - Understanding the Matched Filter
I have a question about matched filtering. Does the matched filter maximise the SNR at the moment of decision only? As far as I understand, ...
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わりィ のはその関口って奴じゃねぇか。 I'm guessing that this って is という rather than は. So I get something like It's that idiot Sekiguchi isn't it? ...
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Moderator's note: As with all discussions of Jewish law on this site, any information included in this question or its answers is presen...
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In Adon Olam some translate the words מְנָת כּוֹסִי in the antepenultimate stanza as “the portion of my cup”. (Wikipedia translates as “Fil...
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