When Rambam says that a principle of faith is that the entire Torah that we now have is that which was given to Moshe, does he include both written and oral Torah, or only the written Torah?
If the former, to what extent? Since he speaks of the Torah that we now have, it cannot mean the Oral Torah in an abstract sense, but, it seems to me, must include some redaction currently in our possession. Does he mean the entire Talmud? Only the Mishnah?
Answer
The Rambam, towards the end of his commentary to Sanhedrin 10:1, explicitly mentions the oral Torah.
... Similarly, the transmitted explanation of the Torah was also received from G-d. This is what we do nowadays with the forms of the sukah, lulav, shofar, tzitzis, tefilin, etc., which are the exact same forms that G-d gave to Mosheh. ...
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