Saturday, June 22, 2019

parshanut torah comment - Why are women unclean longer after giving birth to a girl?


I read that women are unclean for two weeks after giving birth to a girl and seven days after giving birth to a boy. What does it tell us?




Answer



I recommend that you take a look at the commentary of R' Samson Raphael Hirsch on Leviticus 12, and in particular 12:5. I'll try to summarize the pertinent points here, but I won't do his beautiful thoughts and words justice.


The "uncleanliess" you're referring to is "tum-a." According to R' Hirsch, tum-a is a mental condition that would prevent a person from participating in holy practices with the correct mindset. In particular, many types of tum-a cause this problem by afflicting a person with the illusion that people are trapped by the physical world and have no genuine free will. One can't participate in the holy service, in which one dedicates some aspect of oneself to God, without a complete sense that one is approaching God out of free choice. The paradigm of this type of tum-a is contact with a human corpse, which can give a person the depressing impression that people have no more value than this inanimate body.


In the process of giving birth, a woman necessarily surrenders to the overwhelming physical process and thus is intimately subject to the illusion that she is an unfree object of natural forces rather than the holy, volitional being that she is. Until enough time has passed for the depressing effects of this spiritual trauma to ebb, she needs to take a break from holy offerings that require a whole spirit. That's the tum-a that she experiences. The first stage of such recovery takes seven days.


That's for the mother. Of course, the child who's born also goes through a traumatic physical process and what's more, needs to be inducted for the first time into the world of free-willed submission to God. For this purpose, we have different processes for a son and for a daughter. For a son, we do circumcision (12:3), which R' Hirsch says represents "the free willed moral subordination of our physical bodily sensuality under the laws of God" (see his commentary on Genesis 17 for more).


For a daughter, the mother goes through the tum-a recovery period for a second time. It will be the mother's job, in addition to serving as a free-willed moral Jewish Woman in her own right, to also serve as a model of that role for her new daughter. "... and at the birth of each fresh daughter has doubly to arm herself, for the child and for herself, to tread the lofty path of purity and morality up to the heights preached by the Sanctuary of God."


hebrew - The text of the fourth question at the seder


I just read through 40 or so Haggadot and, while I have a provisional (common sense) answer, no one seems to address this, so I appreciate any "real" sourced answers.


The fourth question (current day, Ashkenazic minhag, as opposed to the Sephardic order and the no longer used question about roasted meat) asks


שֶׁבְּכָל הַלֵּילוֹת אָנוּ אוֹכְלִין בֵּין יוֹשְׁבִין וּבֵין מְסֻבִּין, - הַלַּיְלָה הַזֶּה כֻּלָּנוּ מְסֻבִּין!



(text from here)


My rough translation/understanding is


That on all (other) nights WE eat "between" (meaning using either position) sitting and reclining; on this night "we all" recline.


I am trying to understand the exact meaning of "kulanu" "we all" in the explanatory second part of the question.


Is the child saying that "we all" means that we do ALL of our eating in a reclining position? Like the question on dipping, he cannot know what will be required throughout the meal in the future -- he should be asking only on what he has seen. However, he has seen one instance of dipping and sees the other ingredients for dipping and can infer that there will be another dipping (this is the answer I read in a Haggadah). But the child has not seen much eating (for Karpas we specifically eat less than the shiur so that doesn't seem like a substantial thing to infer from), only drinking so he can't infer that we will lean for ALL the eating.


And, if he did infer that, he would be wrong. We don't recline when eating maror!


Is the child saying that "we all" means that everyone reclines? The language conspicuously changes from "anu" (we) to "kulanu" (we all) so it might follow that this is about including all the people at the seder. This would make sense because he, the child, would have just reclined even in the presence of his father so that would seem unusual. But a student does NOT recline in the presence of his Rebbi so we don't "all" recline.


It is easy (and common sense) to assume that the child would not know this intricacy of halacha, but the child already has shown that he knows laws of maror and dipping before they happen so it seems wrong to assume that he didn't learn the laws of heseiba as well.


To what does the "kulanu" refer and why is it presented as an absolute when it doesn't seem to be?


Any insight would be appreciated.




Answer



Kulanu, as the others have said, means that everyone leans. How to square that with the fact that not everyone is required (or even allowed in some cases) to lean is asked by the Natai Gavriel. In a nutshell, his answer is leaning is about showing the autonomy and freedom of liberation, and that we all participate in the action of showing the liberation of leaning, whether or not an individual person leans in that situation. The non-leaner's actions are part of the demonstration of freedom of the group which contains someone who's presence prevents the leaning.


So we are all participating in the demonstration of freedom that leaning represents.


relativistic - Shape of the P1/2 Orbital


I always thought that p-orbitals had a dumbbell shape as pictured below.


enter image description here


(image source)


However, I was reading an article (see Table 1, item 2) that says, "...the spherical $\mathrm{p_{1/2}}$ subshell..." (my emphasis). The implication being that the $\mathrm{p_{1/2}}$ orbital (subshell?) has a greater electron density near the nucleus than the $\mathrm{p_{3/2}}$ orbital (subshell?). Why is this and why do they call the $\mathrm{p_{1/2}}$ orbital spherical?



Answer



As orthocresol mentioned, this is all about relativity, so let's talk about it. I am hardly an expert myself, but I'll try to give an answer to the best of my limited knowledge. For an interesting and accessible overview of the incorporation of relativistic effects into chemistry, I recommend the 2012 review article "Relativistic Effects in Chemistry: More Common Than You Thought" by Pekka Pyykkö (free access!), one of the great names in the field.


The theoretical basis for most of our work as chemists is "old" quantum mechanics, developed up to around 1925, and one of the hallmarks of this era is the Schrödinger equation. The whole concept of orbitals comes as the solution of the Schrödinger equation for the hydrogen atom, (i.e. a two-body system composed of an electron in a spherically symmetric electric field originating from the nucleus). The stationary states in this system are spherical harmonics, described by the quantum numbers $n$, $l$ and $m$ (or $m_l$). The first two numbers determine the shape of the orbital, but we've gotten used to calling the second number by a letter (s, p, d, f, g, ... for 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, ...). So that's what orbital names, such as $\textbf{4s}$, $\textbf{3d}$ and $\textbf{5f}$ mean.



That said, old quantum mechanics is fundamentally incomplete, in a way which very much matters to chemists. In particular, in 1922 the Stern-Gerlach experiment discovered the property of spin. While its existence could be accommodated within the prior framework by "tacking it on" and adding an extra quantum number $s$, there was no theoretical background to explain it. This changed a few years later, when Paul Dirac incorporated special relativity into quantum mechanics. Old quantum mechanics implicitly assumes the speed of light is infinite, and by adequately introducing its finitude, many new experimentally-verified phenomena appear, such as antiparticles and, indeed, spin. In other words, spin is a purely relativistic quantum mechanical property!


The equivalent of the Schrödinger equation in relativistic quantum mechanics is the Dirac equation. Much like the Schrödinger equation, the Dirac equation can be solved for a two-body system composed of an electron in a spherically-symmetric electric field created by the nucleus. The resulting solutions ("Dirac orbitals"), however, are somewhat different. In particular, the quantum numbers $l$ and $s$ are no longer "good" quantum numbers (that is, they no longer describe stationary states, due to spin-orbit coupling), but their sum ($\overrightarrow{j}=\overrightarrow{l}+\overrightarrow{s}$) is. For the electron, $s=\frac{1}{2}$, and thus for each value of $l$, there are now two possible values of $j$, given by $|l+\frac{1}{2}|$ and $|l-\frac{1}{2}|$. This means that the s, p, d, f... subshells from the Schrödinger solutions are now split according to their $j$ values. The s subshells are unique in that they don't split ($|0+\frac{1}{2}| = |0-\frac{1}{2}| = \frac{1}{2}$), but are now termed $\textbf{s}_{1/2}$ subshells. The p subshells, which are triply degenerate via the Schrödinger equation, now split into a single $\textbf{p}_{1/2}$ orbital and two degenerate $\textbf{p}_{3/2}$ orbitals. The d subshells, previously quintuply degenerate, split into two degenerate $\textbf{d}_{3/2}$ orbitals and three degenerate $\textbf{d}_{5/2}$ orbitals. The trend continues similarly for the further subshells. Here is a figure from "Relativistic quantum chemistry: The electrons and the nodes", which will hopefully make it clearer:



So what are the physical consequences of these different mathematical solutions? Firstly, the orbitals change in energy. Orbitals with a lower $j$ for a given $n$ and $l$ have lower energy (e.g., the single $\textbf{4p}_{1/2}$ orbital is lower in energy than the two degenerate $\textbf{4p}_{3/2}$ orbitals). The shape of the orbitals also change; all orbitals with $j=\frac{1}{2}$ are spherical, regardless of $l$.


According to "Contour diagrams for relativistic orbitals":



Contour plots for $^2P_{1/2}$ and $^2S_{1/2}$ are spherically symmetrical, while those for $n = 2$ and $3$, $l = 1$, $j= 3/2$, and $m = \pm 3/2$ look very similar to those for p orbitals already published in this journal.



Similarly, all orbitals with $j=\frac{3}{2}$ are dumbbell-shaped, including $\textbf{d}_{3/2}$ orbitals. The article brings a helpful schematic:




As additional confirmation, "Pictorial Representations of the Dirac Electron Cloud for Hydrogen-Like Atoms" states:



As an example of these two theorems the angular charge distributions for the magnetic states $m = \pm 3/2$ for a $^2P_{3/2}$ term are not only the same but are also identical with the two magnetic states $m = \pm 3/2$ of the $^2D_{3/2}$ term. It should be pointed out that the radial charge distributions of the $^2P$ and $^2D$ terms are different. [...] In this connection one of the consequences of the Dirac theory is that a single p electron or two similar p electrons, depending on whether $j=\frac{1}{2}$ or $j=\frac{3}{2}$ respectively, present spherical symmetry. Not only are all S states spherically symmetrical, as on the Schrodinger theory, but also all one electron systems having but one valence electron and that electron in a $^2P_{1/2}$ state, eg., the normal states of B, Al, Ga, In, Tl.



The article also shows a table of the angular distribution functions for the wavefunction. Note how the function is equal to $1$ for $\textbf{s}_{1/2}$ and $\textbf{p}_{1/2}$ orbitals. That is, there is no angular dependence, implying spherical symmetry.



The article also brings some diagrams and pictures of simulated orbital shapes.




I wouldn't be able to tell you why this is the case any more than I would be able to explain the shapes for the solutions to the Schrödinger equation - that's just how it pans out.



Another difference is that the Dirac orbitals do not possess nodal points or planes. They are now replaced with "pseudo-nodes", where the wavefunction assumes very small values, but never reaches zero anywhere. This is nicely shown in this figure from "Relativistic quantum chemistry: The electrons and the nodes":



word choice - What's the difference between せっかく and わざわざ?


せっかく and わざわざ seem to be pretty close in meaning/usage, but is there ever a time you would use one and not the other? Or is there a small nuance there?


Just to give some example sentences:



「せっかく来てくれたから、昼ごはん奢るよ。」


「わざわざ美容院に行ったのに、雨で髪がくしゃくしゃになっちゃった。」





Is Ethanol Mixed Gasoline Kosher for Passover


Typically in the US, gasoline for cars is a mixture of refined crude oil and some ethanol up to 10%.


Since ethanol in the US is corn based, by buying gasoline are you buying kitniyot?




physical chemistry - Difference between ideal & ideal-dilute solution


These two terms has been frequently used in Physical Chemistry by Atkins. He describes Raoult's Law using ideal solution while Henry's law using ideal-dilute solution.


I thought, at first they were same but Atkins in order to contrast the two laws presented graphs in which one curve was for ideal solution & another was for ideal-dilute solution. Though he wrote two different sections for these solutions, I really couldn't contrast what the difference actually is between ideal solution & ideal-dilute solution. I googled it but to vain! Can anyone please help what he is trying to say by these two terms?




Answer



Raoult's Law is for ideal solutions (all of it: solvent and solute):



Raoult's Law only works for ideal solutions. An ideal solution is defined as one which obeys Raoult's Law. "An ideal solution shows thermodynamic mixing characteristics identical to those of ideal gas mixtures [except] ideal solutions have intermolecular interactions equal to those of the pure components." (all quoted from above link)



As stated here concerning ideal-dilute solutions:



"Many liquid mixtures deviate from the ideal behaviour predicted by Raoult's law. Ideal-dilute solutions are those for which the solvent obeys Raoult's law and the solute Henry's law. The difference in behaviour is because the solvent molecules tend to be surrounded by other solvent molecules so that they behave in an almost ideal way. However, the solute molecules tend also to be surrounded by solvent molecules so that their environment and therefore their thermodynamic behaviour is very unlike that of the pure substance." (all quoted from above link)



In summary: Ideal solutions are those which obey Raoult's Law; ideal-dilute solutions are ones where the solvent obey's Raoult's Law and the solute obeys Henry's Law.



tefilin - Putting Tefillin on Un-educated Jews


May one put tefillin on an uneducated Jew without first explaining to him the laws of keeping his body clean and conveying to him the seriousness of the sanctity of tefillin (is that even possible?)?



Answer



The Lubavitcher Rebbe zt"l addressed these and some related issues in a sicha (public address) of his on Shabbos Bereishis 5728/1967 (not long after he started the "Tefillin Campaign" in the weeks before the Six-Day War).


The relevant portions are printed in Likkutei Sichos, vol. 6, pp. 271ff (available on Hebrewbooks here and following pages). Your two points pretty well recapitulate questions #3 and #4 there (pp. 272 bottom, and following). Among the Rebbe's responses:





  • It is highly unlikely that when you ask a person who is not yet observant to put on tefillin, and he agrees to do so - that he will suddenly just then start having unclean thoughts (and presumably the same is true of bodily emissions).




  • The more so considering that it's a novel experience, and human nature is such that a person tends to focus their thoughts more at such a time.




  • Kavanah is of course important when performing any mitzvah, tefillin as much as any other, but it is not indispensable; the person still fulfills their basic obligation without it.




...and others which it would take me too long to excerpt. The following quotation from Chinuch (mitzvah 421), though, is noteworthy (some phrases of it are cited in the above sicha):



"...it is the opinion of our Sages, of blessed memory, that every person should hold fast to this mitzvah and do it regularly, because it is a great fundamental principle and a major protection against sin, and a strong ladder by which to ascend and enter into the service of the Creator, may He be blessed. Those who are strict about the holiness of this mitzvah and verbally dissuade the common people from being involved in it - perhaps they mean well, but in truth this prevents people from performing several [other] mitzvos, and it is a great harm... I know that 'there is no tzaddik on earth who [always] does good and never sins,' yet we should not prevent him from being involved in mitzvos when a good Divine spirit enclothes him do to good; for who knows whether he may continue in this good way until his death... As they, of blessed memory, taught us, 'one mitzvah brings another in its train...'"


digital communications - Understanding the Matched Filter

I have a question about matched filtering. Does the matched filter maximise the SNR at the moment of decision only? As far as I understand, ...