Thursday, February 6, 2020

digital communications - Understanding the Matched Filter


I have a question about matched filtering. Does the matched filter maximise the SNR at the moment of decision only? As far as I understand, if you put, say, NRZ through a matched filter, the SNR will be maximised at the decision point only and that is the advantage of the matched filter. Does it maximise the SNR anywhere else in the output function, or just at the point of decision?


According to Wikipedia




The matched filter is the optimal linear filter for maximizing the signal to noise ratio (SNR) in the presence of additive stochastic noise



This to me implies that it maximises it everywhere, but I don't see how that is possible. I've looked at the maths in my communications engineering textbooks, and from what I can tell, it's just at the decision point.


Another question I have is, why not make a filter that makes a really tall skinny spike at the point of decision. Wouldn't that make the SNR even better?


Thanks.


Edit: I guess what I'm also thinking is, say you have a some NRZ data and you use a matched filter, the matched filter could be implemented with an I&D (integrate and dump). The I&D will basically ramp up until it gets to the sampling time and the idea is that one samples at the peak of the I&D because at that point, the SNR is a maximum. What I don't get is, why not create a filter that double integrates it or something like that, that way, you'd have a squared increase (rather than a ramp) and the point at which you sample would be even higher up and from what I can tell, more likely to be interpreted correctly by the decision circuit (and give a lower Pe (probability of error))?



Answer



Since this question has multiple sub-questions in edits, comments on answers, etc., and these have not been addressed, here goes.



Matched filters




Consider a finite-energy signal $s(t)$ that is the input to a (linear time-invariant BIBO-stable) filter with impulse response $h(t)$, transfer function $H(f)$, and produces the output signal $$y(\tau) = \int_{-\infty}^\infty s(\tau-t)h(t)\,\mathrm dt.\tag{1}$$ What choice of $h(t)$ will produce a maximum response at a given time $t_0$? That is, we are looking for a filter such that the global maximum of $y(\tau)$ occurs at $t_0$. This really is a very loosely phrased (and really unanswerable) question because clearly the filter with impulse response $2h(t)$ will have larger response than the filter with impulse response $h(t)$, and so there is no such thing as the filter that maximizes the response. So, rather than compare apples and oranges, let us include the constraint that we seek the filter that maximizes $y(t_0)$ subject to the impulse response having a fixed energy, for example, subject to $$\int_{-\infty}^\infty |h(t)|^2\,\mathrm dt = \mathbb E = \int_{-\infty}^\infty |s(t)|^2 \,\mathrm dt.\tag{2}$$





Here onwards, "filter" shall mean a linear time-invariant filter whose impulse response satisfies (2).





The Cauchy-Schwarz inequality provides an answer to this question. We have $$y(t_0) = \int_{-\infty}^\infty s(t_0-t)h(t)\,\mathrm dt \leq \sqrt{\int_{-\infty}^\infty |s(t_0-t)|^2 \,\mathrm dt} \sqrt{\int_{-\infty}^\infty |h(t)|^2\,\mathrm dt} = \mathbb E$$ with equality occurring if $h(t) = \lambda s(t_0-t)$ with $\lambda > 0$ where from (2) we get that $\lambda = 1$, that is, the filter with impulse response $h(t) = s(t_0-t)$ produces the maximal response $y(t_0) = \mathbb E$ at the specified time $t_0$. In the (non-stochastic) sense described above, this filter is said to be



the filter matched to $s(t)$ at time $t_0$ or the matched filter for $s(t)$ at time $t_0.$




There are several points worth noting about this result.




  1. The output of the matched filter has a unique global maximum value of $\mathbb E$ at $t_0$; for any other $t$, we have $y(t) < y(t_0) = \mathbb E$.




  2. The impulse response $s(t_0-t) = s(-(t-t_0))$ of the matched filter for time $t_0$ is just $s(t)$ "reversed in time" and moved to the right by $t_0$.


    a. If $s(t)$ has finite support, say, $[0,T]$, then the matched filter is noncausal if $t_0 < T$.


    b. The filter matched to $s(t)$ at time $t_1 > t_0$ is just the filter matched at time $t_0$ with an additional delay of $t_1-t_0$. For this reason, some people call the filter with impulse response $s(-t)$, (that is, the filter matched to $s(t)$ at $t=0$) the matched filter for $s(t)$ with the understanding that the exact time of match can be incorporated into the discussion as and when needed. If $s(t) = 0$ for $t < 0$, then the matched filter is noncausal. With this, we can rephrase 1. as





  3. The matched filter for $s(t)$ produces a unique global maximum value $y(0) = \mathbb E$ at time $t=0$. Furthermore, $$y(t) = \int_{-\infty}^\infty s(t-\tau)s(-\tau)\,\mathrm d\tau = \int_{-\infty}^\infty s(\tau-t)s(\tau)\,\mathrm d\tau = R_s(t)$$ is the autocorrelation function of the signal $s(t)$. It is well-known, of course, that $R_s(t)$ is an even function of $t$ with a unique peak at the origin. Note that the output of the filter matched at time $t_0$ is just $R_s(t-t_0)$, the autocorrelation function delayed to peak at time $t_0$.




  4. No filter other than the matched filter for time $t_0$ can produce an output as large as $\mathbb E$ at $t_0$. However, for any $t_0$, it is possible to find filters that have outputs that exceed $R_s(t_0)$ at $t_0$. Note that $R_s(t_0) < \mathbb E$.




  5. The transfer function of the matched filter is $H(f)=S^*(f)$, the complex conjugate of the spectrum of $S(f)$. Thus, $Y(f) = \mathfrak F[y(t)]= |S(f)|^2$. Think of this result as follows. Since $x^2 > x$ for $x > 1$ and $x^2< x$ for $0 < x < 1$, the matched filter has low gain at those frequencies where $S(f)$ is small, and high gain at those frequencies where $S(f)$ is large. Thus, the matched filter is reducing the weak spectral components and enhancing the strong spectral components in $S(f)$. (It is also doing phase compensation to adjust all the "sinusoids" so that they all peak at $t=0$).





-------


But what about noise and SNR and stuff like that which is what the OP was asking about?


If the signal $s(t)$ plus additive white Gaussian noise with two-sided power spectral density $\frac{N_0}{2}$ is processed through a filter with impulse response $h(t)$, then the output noise process is a zero-mean stationary Gaussian process with autocorrelation function $\frac{N_0}{2}R_s(t)$. Thus, the variance is $$\sigma^2 = \frac{N_0}{2} R_s(0) = \frac{N_0}{2}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} |h(t)|^2\,\mathrm dt.$$ It is important to note that the variance is the same regardless of when we sample the filter output. So, what choice of $h(t)$ will maximize the SNR $y(t_0)/\sigma$ at time $t_0$? Well, from the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality, we have $$\text{SNR} = \frac{y(t_0)}{\sigma} = \frac{\int_{-\infty}^\infty s(t_0-t)h(t)\,\mathrm dt}{\sqrt{\frac{N_0}{2}\int_{-\infty}^\infty |h(t)|^2\,\mathrm dt}} \leq \frac{\sqrt{\int_{-\infty}^\infty |s(t_0-t)|^2 \,\mathrm dt} \sqrt{\int_{-\infty}^\infty |h(t)|^2\,\mathrm dt}}{\sqrt{\frac{N_0}{2}\int_{-\infty}^\infty |h(t)|^2\,\mathrm dt}} = \sqrt{\frac{2\mathbb E}{N_0}}$$ with equality exactly when $h(t) = s(t_0-t)$, the filter that is matched to $s(t)$ at time $t_0$!! Note that $\sigma^2 = \mathbb EN_0/2$. If we use this matched filter for our desired sample time, then at other times $t_1$, the SNR will be $y(t_1)/\sigma < y(t_0)/\sigma = \sqrt{\frac{2\mathbb E}{N_0}}$. Could another filter give a larger SNR at time $t_1$? Sure, because $\sigma$ is the same for all filters under consideration, and we have noted above that it is possible to have a signal output larger than $y(t_1)$ at time $t_1$ by use of a different non-matched filter.


In short,




  • "does the matched filter maximize the SNR only at the sampling instant, or everywhere?" has the answer that the SNR is maximized only at the sampling instant $t_0$. At other times, other filters could give a larger SNR than what the matched filter is providing at time $t_1$, but this still smaller than the SNR $\sqrt{\frac{2\mathbb E}{N_0}}$ that the matched filter is giving you at $t_0$, and if desired, the matched filter could be redesigned to produce its peak at time $t_1$ instead of $t_0$.





  • "why not make a filter that makes a really tall skinny spike at the point of decision. Wouldn't that make the SNR even better?"
    The matched filter does produce a spike of sorts at the sampling time but it is constrained by the shape of the autocorrelation function. Any other filter that you can devise to produce a tall skinny (time-domain) spike is not a matched filter and so will not give you the largest possible SNR. Note that increasing the amplitude of the filter impulse response (or using a time-varying filter that boosts the gain at the time of sampling) does not change the SNR since both the signal and the noise standard deviation increase proportionately.




  • "The I&D will basically ramp up until it gets to the sampling time and the idea is that one samples at the peak of the I&D because at that point, the SNR is a maximum."
    For NRZ data and rectangular pulses, the matched filter impulse response is also a rectangular pulse. The integrate-and-dump circuit is a correlator whose output equals the matched filter output only at the sampling instants, and not in-between. See the figure below.




enter image description here


If you sample the correlator output at other times, you get noise with smaller variance but you can't simply add up the samples of I&D output taken at different times because the noise variables are highly correlated, and the net variance works out to be much larger. Nor should you expect to be able to take multiple samples from the matched filter output and combine them in any way to get a better SNR. It doesn't work. What you have in effect is a different filter, and you cannot do better than the (linear) matched filter in Gaussian noise; no nonlinear processing will give a smaller error probability than the matched fiter.



agada stories legends - Is the leviathan kosher?


The leviathan seems to be a unique sea creature, which I've always pictured as some sort of sea serpent. This is consistent with Yeshayahu 27:1's description of it as a snake (nachash). An answer to this question suggests that it's a fish (and doesn't address Yeshayahu). We know from the midrash that at the end of days the righteous will feed on it, whatever it is.


One could argue that because the righteous will feed on it, it must be a kosher fish. Or if the leviathan is a serpent, one could argue that when God holds this end-of-days banquet He can declare anything He wants to be permitted, culinarily speaking -- the laws of kashrut as we know them don't apply. (I've no idea if such an argument would be, err, kosher.)


Do any sources say if the leviathan is kosher by the laws of the torah?



Answer




The medrash tanchuma on parshas Shmini #7 takes the opinion that at that great feast of Beheimos and Leviason, the mitzvos which until now were only to purify/smelt the people with will no longer apply. The proof is that the Beheimos will not have a proper slaughtering, but will rather be killed by the Liviason. The medrash goes on to prove that Liviason is an abnormal strong creature, capable of killing Beheimos.


But throughout the entire discussion of proving that slaughtering will become obsolete, the medrash does not entertain the idea that Beheimos or Liviason are not kosher.


The Vayikra Rabba in chapter 22 states explicitly that it is kosher.


The Bavli in Chulin 67b says it is a kosher fish. The Maharsha asks would Hashem ever feed his Tzadikim nonkosher fish? He answers that the gemara is clarifying that Liviason is in fact a fish and not some other creature like a bird. The Iyun Yaakov answers this question by pointing to Yalkut on Shmini 535 and on Tehilim siman 146, that in fact in the future Hashem will allow what was not allowed beforehand and a New Torah will be given from Tzion. The Aruch ערך גא says the gemara needed to tell us it was kosher because it is mentioned along with a snake, so as to preclude the assumption that it is not kosher like a snake, we have the drasha in the gemara.


zero padding - What happens when N increases in N-point DFT




I am curious about DFT, and I wrote a simple MATLAB code to test what happens when $N$ increases. I took a rectangular signal with length $L=15$, an then found th DFT of 16, 32 and 64 points. I looked at the plots of the DFTs, however I could not understand why there is difference between them and how zero padding affects the DFT. Could someone explain it?



Answer



The length N of the DFT is the number of frequency points that will result in the DFT output. Zero padding will result in more frequency samples, however this does not increase frequency resolution, it just interpolates samples in the DTFT. The frequency resolution is given by $1/T$ where T is the time length of your data (regardless of sampling rate). So if you want to increase the actual frequency resolution, you need to increase the number of samples at a given sampling rate, or decrease the sampling rate which would increase the time length for the number of samples you have.


For further explanation on the difference between the DTFT and DFT, see my post response here:


For 2D signals can it be said that the frequency response is the same as the Fourier transform?


Here is a demonstration showing frequency resolution and zero padding. The two red squares on the frequency axis at the top of the picture denote the "true" frequency location for two test tones, at f1 = 0.26 and f2 = 0.28. Given the seperation of 0.02 in normalized frequency (cylces/sample) we would need to have greater than 1/0.02 = 50 samples to resolve the two frequencies. The top plot shows the result of having only 10 samples of the data and zero padding out the time domain data for final datasets of 10 (no padding), 20, 50 and 100. We clearly see in this plot that as we add more samples, we interpolate more frequency points, but it does not offer any further information about the individual frequency content of our two tones.


Below that is another plot where instead of just adding zeros, we increase the number of samples in our dataset with the same two frequency tones present and again take the DFT with 10, 20, 50 and 100 samples. At 50 samples we have enough frequency resolution for our separation in frequency (but still difficult to see on the plot), while at 100 samples the separation is clearly visible.


enter image description here


enter image description here



Why is this? Padding with zeros is the same as multiplying the longer sequence with a rectangular window. Multiplying the time domain sequences is the same as convolution in the frequency domain (circular convolution for the DFT). The time domain rectangular window that we effectively used for the example above, and the resulting DFT of the window itself is shown in the plot below. The DFT of the window is what would convolve with our original frequencies. As the time length of the window increases, the width of the main lobe of its transform in frequency gets more narrow (the nulls are located at 1/T) and therefore the frequency resolution increases.


enter image description here


repentance teshuvah - Why don't Jews sacrifice animals anymore?


Correct me if I'm wrong, but Jews do not currently sacrifice animals like ancestors long ago. Why do Jews not currently sacrifice animals? Will there be a time when sacrificing returns once again? How are sins forgiven if an animal is not sacrificed to cover for those sins?




words - The definitions of Judaism and Jew


An infinite loop:


Judaism according to Google is "the monotheistic religion of the Jews".


And Jew is "a member of the people and cultural community whose traditional religion is Judaism and who trace their origins through the ancient Hebrew people of Israel to Abraham."





What are the best, the most precise definitions of both terms?




halacha theory - Different counts of the 248 organs - bones or soft tissues?


First read the related questions here (mitzvot-and-their-body-parts and here (613-organs).


The Mishnah in Ohalot (1:8) states that there are 248 organs and lists all of them:



"מָאתַיִם וְאַרְבָּעִים וּשְׁמֹנָה אֵבָרִים בָּאָדָם, שְׁלשִׁים בְּפִסַּת הָרֶגֶל, שִׁשָּׁה בְכָל אֶצְבַּע, עֲשָׂרָה בַקֻּרְסָל, שְׁנַיִם בַּשּׁוֹק, חֲמִשָּׁה בָאַרְכֻּבָּה, אֶחָד בַּיָּרֵךְ, שְׁלשָׁה בַקַּטְלִית, אַחַת עֶשְׂרֵה צְלָעוֹת, שְׁלשִׁים בְּפִסַּת הַיָּד, שִׁשָּׁה בְכָל אֶצְבַּע, שְׁנַיִם בַּקָּנֶה, וּשְׁנַיִם בַּמַּרְפֵּק, אֶחָד בַּזְּרוֹעַ, וְאַרְבָּעָה בַכָּתֵף. מֵאָה וְאֶחָד מִזֶּה וּמֵאָה וְאֶחָד מִזֶּה. וּשְׁמֹנֶה עֶשְׂרֵה חֻלְיוֹת בַּשִּׁדְרָה, תִּשְׁעָה בָרֹאשׁ, שְׁמֹנָה בַצַּוָּאר, שִׁשָּׁה בַמַּפְתֵּחַ שֶׁל לֵב, וַחֲמִשָּׁה בִנְקָבָיו. :


There are two hundred and forty-eight limbs in the body. Thirty in the foot - six in each toe, ten in the ankle, two in the shin, five in the knee, one in the thigh, three in the hip, eleven ribs, thirty in the palm - six in each finger, two in the forearm, two in the elbow, one in the upper arm, and four in the shoulder. One hundred and one of this [side of the body], and one hundred and one of that. And eighteen vertebrates in the spinal chord: nine in the head, eight in the neck, six in the openings of the heart, and five around its cavities.



However it elaborates the purpose of this counting as:



כָּל אֶחָד וְאֶחָד מְטַמֵּא בְמַגָּע וּבְמַשָּׂא וּבְאֹהֶל. אֵימָתַי, בִּזְמַן שֶׁיֵּשׁ עֲלֵיהֶן בָּשָׂר כָּרָאוּי. אֲבָל אִם אֵין עֲלֵיהֶן בָּשָׂר כָּרָאוּי, מְטַמְּאִין בְּמַגָּע וּבְמַשָּׂא, וְאֵין מְטַמְּאִין בְּאֹהֶל



Each of these impurifies through touching, carrying, or sharing quarters. When is this true? When the limbs still have an appropriate amount of flesh on them. But if they do not have an appropriate amount of flesh on them, they will impurify through touching and through carrying, but not through sharing quarters.



It is clear that only the bones are counted, hence the original "אברים" is translated as "limbs" and not organs. We don't see the soft tissues, like skin, muscles, eyes, tongue, brain, lungs etc.


Rambam in Hilchot Tumat Met 2,3 adds that the soft tissues are considered אברים also:



מה אדם בשר וגידים ועצמות אף אבר מן החי עד שיהיה כברייתו בשר וגידים ועצמות אבל הכוליא והלשון וכיוצא בהן אף על פי שהן אבר בפני עצמן הואיל ואין בהן עצם הרי הן כשאר הבשר


Implied is that the bone must be like a man, i.e., a human corpse. Just as a human corpse has flesh, sinews, and bones, so too, a limb from a living person must be intact as it was when it came into being and have flesh, sinews, and bones. In contrast, a kidney and a tongue, and the like, even though they are considered as complete ORGANS, since they do not contain bones, they are considered as the remainder of a person's flesh.



Combining the Mishna with Rambam we can count more than 248 organs, as it includes 248 bones plus the soft organs. Another slightly contradicting source is the Mishna in Negayim 6:




"עֶשְׂרִים וְאַרְבָּעָה רָאשֵׁי אֵבָרִין בָּאָדָם שֶׁאֵינָן מִטַּמְּאִין מִשּׁוּם מִחְיָה, רָאשֵׁי אֶצְבְּעוֹת יָדַיִם וְרַגְלַיִם, וְרָאשֵׁי אָזְנַיִם, וְרֹאשׁ הַחֹטֶם, וְרֹאשׁ הַגְּוִיָּה, וְרָאשֵׁי הַדַּדִּים שֶׁבָּאִשָּׁה."


There are twenty-four tips of limbs on man that do not become impure due to a healthy patch [seen in a Nega]: The tips of the fingers of the hands and feet [i.e. toes], the tips of the ears, the tip of the nose, the tip of the male organ, the tips of the breasts on a woman.



As we see it lists organs not listed in the Mishna in Ohalot.


I am confused - Is this a different counting of the 248 body organs, or is this the only one:



  • If it is different - where are the others?

  • If that's the only one, where are the soft organs counted?




ions - Deuterium removal from water


What percentage of deuterium might be removed from water after a typical electrolysis procedure? From a post on this site I read that, "In the first stage, $\ce{NaOH}$ solution (initially $0.5\rm{M}$) is subject to electrolysis, until only $\frac{1}{32}$ of the original volume remains. This increased the original concentration of deuterium by a factor of $12$."



This seems to be, for the electrolyzed hydrogen, an approximate $38\%$ decrease from the original concentration. If we assume the original concentration was $150\rm{ppm}$ then after the first pass, we might expect to have $93\rm{ppm}$ in the deuterium reduced hydrogen. If my estimate is valid, may I expect that each successive pass would reduce the deuterium content by a similar percentage?




grammar - When is 「だ/である」required between a noun and the quotation particle と?


Note: Edits in response to comments have been added in italics


The sentence prompting this question is:



時下ますますご清栄のことと、お喜び申し上げます




Which I have always "loosely" taken to mean:



I am glad to hear you are doing so well these days.



Based on the explanation of と on page 464 of "A dictionary of intermediate Japanese Grammar", I think there is an ellipsis of 伺いまして, and hence is quotive but I am not entirely sure.


But to return to my question, when is 「だ/である」required between a noun and the quotation particle と?:


There some straight forward cases that are easy to remember such as (1)with names (2) direct quotes and (3)"fixed expressions" such as "とばかり”:



(1) Tim と言います| I am called Tim 



(2)「____」と言います。|normal direct quote 


(3)負けじとばかりゴールを目ざして走った|Determined not to be beaten, he dashed toward the goal.



I also found the advice in the Dictionary of Basic Jpse Grammar that in the sentence:


米国の貿易赤字は しばらくのまま 続く もの と 予想される。 It is predicted that the US trade deficit will remain as it is for a while.


"Mono followed by a quotative と is used in general statements or opinion. This mono could be dropped without a change in meaning. Note that copula だ does not follow と."


But when making my own sentences of indirect quotes (etc?) it is not so straightforward because I am not sure what rule/principle applies.


Could somebody some insight on when the copula (だ)particle と go together?


(If sentence 3 is based on the same principle as sentence 2 then perhaps I have covered all the expceptions?)



Answer




I think it is simply an issue of whether you are quoting a complete sentence or not.



ティムと言います。
He is called Tim.


ティムだと言っています。
It's being said that he is Tim.



As quoting particle, と is allowed to quote anything. But there are other uses of と, like the conditional と, the AとB(と) construction for "and", and the と of と-adverbs (like 負けじと of the third sentence), which I would say is related to the と of the mimeses like じっと, ちらっと, which are also adverbs.


The question of whether or not a だ・である should come before と is only relevant to と as quoting particle. For example, when an idea is presented with ということ(です), the idea is something that should be presented as a full sentence, which, when ending in a noun, should be followed by だ.




今日はお休みだということです。
It means that today is a holiday.



Quoting incomplete sentences only makes sense in appropriate contexts, for example when you give your name (where you only "quote" your name).


In English, too, quoting incomplete sentences (i.e. sentences without a verb) makes sense in few cases. The last example without a verb in the quoted sentence would render as



It means that today a holiday.



I think that both in English and Japanese indirect quotes should always be full sentences, i.e. in this case, in Japanese you should always use だ after noun phrases.


Of course, this rule may be broken for more polite Japanese, as in your example sentence:




時下ますますご清栄のことと、お喜び申し上げます。



would be a short & formal version of



時下ますますご清栄のことだと伺いまして、お喜び申し上げます。



(Of course that's not the only usual rule of grammar that polite language breaks: 申し上げる is transitive, but お喜び is not marked by を.)


hashkafah philosophy - What's the point of an oath?


There's an argument whether annulling an oath needs an excuse. Even if there needs to be an excuse, the excuse could be something weak like "I didn't know I shouldn't take oaths".


What's the point of an oath which could be cancelled at any time?




Wednesday, February 5, 2020

parshanut torah comment - Why did God want a Tabernacle built by Moses?



Why did God want a Tabernacle to live among Israel (Exodus 25:8)? What is the significance of the Tabernacle built by Moses?




gentiles - Accepting charity from a non-Jew


If a person sends out a group email to solicit funds to help needy families and inadvertently includes non-Jews on the email - Is it permitted to use the funds that the non-Jews donate towards helping needy Jewish families ?



I have read several articles on this subject but I am not clear in this case because:



  • There was no intent to solicit directly from non-Jews

  • The person is only an intermediary and the money goes to a third-party to distribute


I am not sure if the following makes a difference but:



  • The money was already accepted (darkei shalom)

  • the funds are not for a specific goal i.e. "give 10$ so we can buy a chicken for Yom Tov" rather the money is being collected and given to a Gabbai Tzdekah to distribute it as they see fit.



For those who are unfamiliar with the concept of accepting Tzedakla from a non-Jew please see this Mi Yodea post for more information




What percentage of Chabad still believes their Rebbe is the Messiah?


Are there any statistics as to what percentage of Chabad still believes that their Rebbe is the Messiah? Is it the majority or simply a very vocal minority? Have there been any serious studies made on the issue?



Please note this question seeks statistics not ideology.




passover - How to create a Seder to accommodate a large age/education range?


My family came across an interesting problem at tonight's Seder: My dad, the leader, attempted to write a Seder that attracted everyone at different times, but the actual result ended up as a particularly bad Seder beyond the norm. Here are some details:



  • The cousins' ages: 18, 16, 14, 12, 9, 7

  • 18 and 16 have had an excellent Jewish day school education, and the rest haven't had more than a Sunday school-level education

  • The families of 7/9 and 12/14 traditionally leave after Tzafun, which I'd assumed was out of the youngsters' exhaustion but now seems like an active decision out of a lack of interest in Barech/Hallel/Nirtzah


Here are the shticks that my dad tried to execute throughout the Seder:




  • Seder bingo - everyone got a piece of paper with a 5x5 board listing various elements of the Seder. The first person to make bingo by crossing off squares as their words got said over the course of the Seder (and get us to guess all 5 of their things, without using the words themselves) won the coveted prize of being first in line for dinner. We got a first and second place winner, but then it fell apart when everyone got bingo during the Ten Plagues.

  • Kid-oriented Magid - my dad's traditional Magid m.o. is to get the kids to fill in the blanks. Two problems: The 7- and 9-year-olds were too shy to contribute even the things that they did know, and the 12-year-old went off on a heavily Prince of Egypt-inspired summary of the start of the story, in which everyone else pretty much was able to zone out.

  • Modern problems - after removing the 10 drops from Kos Sheini, my dad had everyone go around and list a modern problem, and we'd remove another drop for each one. The 12-year-old thought it'd be funny to name explosive diarrhea as a problem facing the world today.

  • Mini-debates - at various points in the Seder, my dad asked for volunteers and assigned each of them a position to defend in 30 seconds before opening up a vote on who had the best argument. The kids had no involvement whatsoever.


Basically, our problem is this: How do we keep everyone engaged at the same time? Even the adults ended up in side conversations during the kid-oriented bits, and in a post-Seder "debriefing" held by those of us who stayed till the end acknowledged that my dad's role was more "traffic cop" than "Seder leader" tonight. Ever since he'd started planning this year's sdarim, he'd had the idea of maybe doing something different tomorrow night, since it's the exact same crowd who already did all the traditional stuff tonight.


What can we do at tomorrow's Seder that'll hold everyone's interest? For what it's worth, we're Reform, so hardly anything is off-limits. Our debriefing didn't come up with any solid ideas, so any and all suggestions are welcome!




parshanut torah comment - Egel- Why EILEH is Plural


Why when the Jews made the egel, a single bull, they use the words Eilah Elohecha Yisroel which is plural?




Answer



The Gemara (Sanhedrin 63a) cites a couple of opinions. (Actually, it's talking about the plural form of the verb העלוך, "those who brought you up," but I would assume that these also fit with the plural אלה. Baal Haturim to 32:4 in fact quotes the second opinion below in explaining this phrase.)




  • Acherim ("the others," usually R' Meir): they meant thereby to say that they accepted Hashem and (lehavdil) the Calf as co-equal deities (shituf).




  • R' Shimon bar Yochai: they wanted to worship many other deities besides the Calf. (He considers this less objectionable than shituf.) This opinion actually has halachic implications too: once the Jews demonstrated that idolatry was acceptable to them, then the Canaanites living in the Land of Israel could be considered their agents, and their worship of things such as asheirah-trees would indeed make them forbidden for use, even though they were already part of the Jews' patrimony (Avodah Zarah 53b).





meaning - What is this form : Verb + はせん?


I am currently trying to read Bleach in Japanese. So far I haven't ran into any difficulty that a good dictionary cannot overcome. However in this particular scene I am puzzled by a particular scene, in the first tome, chapter 5 I think:



enter image description here


俺のものだ!誰{だれ}にも渡{わた}しはせん!!まして黒崎{くろさき}一議{いちご}!!



So, this character is Orihime's brother. They have lived together until he died, and they were very exclusive, living without their parents. Upon his death, Orihime was at first praying for his rest everyday and such, but after a while she stopped praying and made new friends, including Kurosaki-kun with whom she is in love. Driven by jealousy, the brother comes back as a hollow to reclaim her.


So, I understand the rough meaning (I think):




She is mine! No one will take her from me!! Especially you, Kurosaki-kun!!



So my questions:



  • Is this the correct sense?

  • What is this form ? Is it simply a shortcut for 〜てはいけません? Where does it comes from? Is it common?

  • I have always used 渡す in a literal sense (for a road, a bridge...) Is it common to use it like this?



Answer



The basic meaning is the same as 渡さない. There are two differences:





  1. The focus particle は adds emphasis to the negative. In order to add the particle, the verb is split into two parts, 渡し+しない, with the particle added in between.




  2. The Western negative form せん (from せぬ) is used instead of the Eastern form しない.




No, it doesn't mean "cross over a road or bridge". He just said 「俺のものだ!」 ("It's mine!"), so you can tell he must be talking about not handing something over to anyone.


By the way, you'll see variations on 連用形+は+しない sometimes. One common form after the high vowels /i/ and /e/ is ~やしない, where the /wa/ has weakened to /a/, and the transition from the high vowel to /a/ sounds like a /y/ sound. If the /i/ or /e/ drops out, then it contracts further, as in the idiom ったらありゃしない, from と言ったら+あり+は+しない.



rabbis - Notable Rabbanim and Thanksgiving


I know (from a friend who attends) that the Maimonides, the school founded by R' Soloveitchik, observes Thanksgiving. Did the Rav, or any other notable American Rabbanim, observe Thanksgiving?




matlab - Filter message from noisy voice signal


I am trying to decipher a message hidden within a very noisy audio file(.wav)(I think it is white noise with an additional low drone). The message is a six digit number. I have not have any further details about the noise.


I attempted to use a low-pass filter in the hopes that eliminating most of the higher frequencies would allow me to hear the numbers but, I seem to be unable to also get rid of enough of the low drone to hear the voice well enough. My attempt was as follows (the employed function freq_space_low_pass_filter is included at the end):


[data, SampleRate, NbitsPerSample]=wavread('noisy_msg6.wav');

y=data(:,1); % we will work only with one channel in this demo
N=length(y); %number of sample points
t=( (1:N)*1/SampleRate ).'; % time spacing is 1/SampleRate and we want column vector


Y=fft(y);

spectrum_freq=fourier_frequencies(SampleRate, N);

Freq3db=100;
[spectrum_filtered,g_vs_freq]=freq_space_low_pass_filter(Y, SampleRate, Freq3db);


y_filtered=ifft(spectrum_filtered);


y_filtered=real(y_filtered);



wavwrite(y_filtered/(0.1+max(y_filtered)), SampleRate, NbitsPerSample,
'noisy_msg6_filtered.wav');

%%%%%%%%down sampling%%%%%%%%


indexes=(abs(spectrum_freq) < 10*Freq3db);
spectrum_freq_down_sampled = spectrum_freq(indexes);
spectrum_down_sampled = spectrum_filtered(indexes);
N_down_sampled = length(spectrum_down_sampled);

spectrum_down_sampled=spectrum_down_sampled*N_down_sampled/N;

SampleRate_down_sampled=SampleRate*N_down_sampled/N;

y_down_sampled=real(ifft(spectrum_down_sampled));

t_down_sampled = ( (1:N_down_sampled)*1/SampleRate_down_sampled ).';

sound(y_down_sampled, SampleRate_down_sampled)



function [spectrum_filtered,g]=freq_space_low_pass_filter(spectrum, SampleRate, Freq3db)
%% applies low pass filter in the frequency domain
% spectrum - result of fft on time series data (column vector is expected)
% SampleRate - measured in Hz, 1/dt where dt spacing of the points in time domain
% Freq3db - desired 3db roll off point in Hz


N=length(spectrum);

function G=filter_gain(freq, Freq3db)
G=1./(1+1i*freq/Freq3db); % this corresponds to low pass RC filter
end

spectrum_freq=fourier_frequencies(SampleRate, N);

% calculate filter gain for each spectrum frequency

g=filter_gain(spectrum_freq, Freq3db);
spectrum_filtered=spectrum.*g;
end



Plot of the signal spectrum: picture




everyday chemistry - Using table salt as a way to limit humidity in an unoccupied house


We own a static caravan in the UK (Snowdonia region, so rainy and wet all year round, moderately cold winters) and we leave it unoccupied during Winter (Oct-Feb).


We were advised of an apparently common practice among caravan owners which is to leave open boxes of table salt in each room, under the premise that they will capture moisture in the air and lock it away chemically in order to reduce the risk of moisture related decay in the building's structure.



I was skeptical that this would work but in the interests of science I did it anyway last winter. I took 7 plastic ice-cream tubs and put roughly 1 kilogram of domestic table salt into each and put one in each room of the home (two in the largest room - the kitchen/living room space).


I (stupidly) never took photos of this phenomenon but I have attempted to illustrate my findings...


enter image description here


Fig. B is complete speculation on my part as I did not return to the home during Winter to observe it. However in Spring when I returned, all of the tubs had experienced a change in their appearance.


All the tubs were now dry again, presumably down to evaporation due to increasing weather temperatures. And therefore releasing all that moisture back into the building again!


Three of the tubs were largely unchanged with some noticable "caking" together of the salt into crumbly, grainy lumps which returned to normal looking salt grains when crushed.


The most profound change from the remaining tubs was as you see in Fig. C of the diagram.


The salt had actually accumulated on the walls of the tub as a fine sediment. This suggests that water had accumulated in large amounts in the tub and had in fact risen higher than the original depth of the dry salt grains! I'd estimate that the tub would have had to accumulate about 0.5kg of water in order for the water/salt solution to reach the depth indicated by the dry sediment.


The salt had solidified into a single, large mass. The volume seemed to have increased noticeably but the density had also decreased accordingly, so the salt had basically expanded in it's container and solidified. It was crumbly and brittle and some of it had been reduced to a very fine sediment.


The home is a single storey, about 12m x 4.5m x 2.5m in volume.



My questions then:



  1. Is this a valid technique for capturing excess moisture over Winter?

  2. Are my observations and presumptions reasonable... Is Fig. B what really happened?

  3. What is the chemistry / physics process that caused the salt to be transformed from Fig. A to Fig. C?

  4. How many times did the tubs cycle between states B and C? Was it a single cycle that lasted all of winter, or a daily cycle following ambient weather temperatures? I could not tell just by looking at C on the last day of the experiment.



Answer



According to Transportation Information Service: Salt:




At up to 74% relative humidity and 20°C, salt does not absorb any appreciable quantities of water vapor. The critical water content of sodium chloride (NaCl) is 0.5% at 74% relative humidity, which is the flow moisture point at which salt begins readily to absorb water vapor, and increases such that, at 75% relative humidity, the salt dissolves.



See this graph for better understanding.


So at high humidity, salt can absorb lots of moisture, enough to become liquid.


When it is liquid, it will creep up the walls of the container by adhesion.


Then, when humidity decreases, the salt will lose almost all its moist, and contract, but leave residue up to the height of the former meniscus.


passover - Ashkenazim and Kitniyot on Erev Pesach


The following hypothetical case was raised in class today:


An American (ashkenazic) Jew is visiting Israel. On Erev Pesach, he has a hankering for sushi (the word hankering was not used in class -- this is my emendation). So he goes to a Sephardic, K for P restaurant. Can he order and eat sushi with rice?


This developed from a broader question -- can a Jew eat someone else's chameitz on erev pesach (so there is no issue of owning it) even if it means accepting any punishment for theft?



Answer



According to Chok Yaakov, cited by Shevet Halevi (OC 31), the custom to refrain from eating kitniyot begins on Erev Pesach, just the same as the prohibition of eating chametz.


jewish books - Sefer written by a woman?


I remember hearing once about a sefer written by a woman that people were learning but then it was banned. Do you the name of the sefer/author?


*I think it was written in pre-war Europe




digital communications - Understanding the Matched Filter

I have a question about matched filtering. Does the matched filter maximise the SNR at the moment of decision only? As far as I understand, ...