Was it always a straightforward presumption ("davar pashut") that in general the Ashkanazim should decide Halachic questions ("pasken") in accordance with the Rema over the Machaber/Beis Yosef (when they disagree)? Or did one of the Achronim come along and say that in general the Ashkanazim would/should pasken in accordance with the Rema over the Machaber, but before that particular Achron it was not necessarily for an Ashkanazi posek to rule thus?
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digital communications - Understanding the Matched Filter
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Moderator's note: As with all discussions of Jewish law on this site, any information included in this question or its answers is presen...
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