Thursday, February 6, 2020

digital communications - Understanding the Matched Filter


I have a question about matched filtering. Does the matched filter maximise the SNR at the moment of decision only? As far as I understand, if you put, say, NRZ through a matched filter, the SNR will be maximised at the decision point only and that is the advantage of the matched filter. Does it maximise the SNR anywhere else in the output function, or just at the point of decision?


According to Wikipedia




The matched filter is the optimal linear filter for maximizing the signal to noise ratio (SNR) in the presence of additive stochastic noise



This to me implies that it maximises it everywhere, but I don't see how that is possible. I've looked at the maths in my communications engineering textbooks, and from what I can tell, it's just at the decision point.


Another question I have is, why not make a filter that makes a really tall skinny spike at the point of decision. Wouldn't that make the SNR even better?


Thanks.


Edit: I guess what I'm also thinking is, say you have a some NRZ data and you use a matched filter, the matched filter could be implemented with an I&D (integrate and dump). The I&D will basically ramp up until it gets to the sampling time and the idea is that one samples at the peak of the I&D because at that point, the SNR is a maximum. What I don't get is, why not create a filter that double integrates it or something like that, that way, you'd have a squared increase (rather than a ramp) and the point at which you sample would be even higher up and from what I can tell, more likely to be interpreted correctly by the decision circuit (and give a lower Pe (probability of error))?



Answer



Since this question has multiple sub-questions in edits, comments on answers, etc., and these have not been addressed, here goes.



Matched filters




Consider a finite-energy signal $s(t)$ that is the input to a (linear time-invariant BIBO-stable) filter with impulse response $h(t)$, transfer function $H(f)$, and produces the output signal $$y(\tau) = \int_{-\infty}^\infty s(\tau-t)h(t)\,\mathrm dt.\tag{1}$$ What choice of $h(t)$ will produce a maximum response at a given time $t_0$? That is, we are looking for a filter such that the global maximum of $y(\tau)$ occurs at $t_0$. This really is a very loosely phrased (and really unanswerable) question because clearly the filter with impulse response $2h(t)$ will have larger response than the filter with impulse response $h(t)$, and so there is no such thing as the filter that maximizes the response. So, rather than compare apples and oranges, let us include the constraint that we seek the filter that maximizes $y(t_0)$ subject to the impulse response having a fixed energy, for example, subject to $$\int_{-\infty}^\infty |h(t)|^2\,\mathrm dt = \mathbb E = \int_{-\infty}^\infty |s(t)|^2 \,\mathrm dt.\tag{2}$$





Here onwards, "filter" shall mean a linear time-invariant filter whose impulse response satisfies (2).





The Cauchy-Schwarz inequality provides an answer to this question. We have $$y(t_0) = \int_{-\infty}^\infty s(t_0-t)h(t)\,\mathrm dt \leq \sqrt{\int_{-\infty}^\infty |s(t_0-t)|^2 \,\mathrm dt} \sqrt{\int_{-\infty}^\infty |h(t)|^2\,\mathrm dt} = \mathbb E$$ with equality occurring if $h(t) = \lambda s(t_0-t)$ with $\lambda > 0$ where from (2) we get that $\lambda = 1$, that is, the filter with impulse response $h(t) = s(t_0-t)$ produces the maximal response $y(t_0) = \mathbb E$ at the specified time $t_0$. In the (non-stochastic) sense described above, this filter is said to be



the filter matched to $s(t)$ at time $t_0$ or the matched filter for $s(t)$ at time $t_0.$




There are several points worth noting about this result.




  1. The output of the matched filter has a unique global maximum value of $\mathbb E$ at $t_0$; for any other $t$, we have $y(t) < y(t_0) = \mathbb E$.




  2. The impulse response $s(t_0-t) = s(-(t-t_0))$ of the matched filter for time $t_0$ is just $s(t)$ "reversed in time" and moved to the right by $t_0$.


    a. If $s(t)$ has finite support, say, $[0,T]$, then the matched filter is noncausal if $t_0 < T$.


    b. The filter matched to $s(t)$ at time $t_1 > t_0$ is just the filter matched at time $t_0$ with an additional delay of $t_1-t_0$. For this reason, some people call the filter with impulse response $s(-t)$, (that is, the filter matched to $s(t)$ at $t=0$) the matched filter for $s(t)$ with the understanding that the exact time of match can be incorporated into the discussion as and when needed. If $s(t) = 0$ for $t < 0$, then the matched filter is noncausal. With this, we can rephrase 1. as





  3. The matched filter for $s(t)$ produces a unique global maximum value $y(0) = \mathbb E$ at time $t=0$. Furthermore, $$y(t) = \int_{-\infty}^\infty s(t-\tau)s(-\tau)\,\mathrm d\tau = \int_{-\infty}^\infty s(\tau-t)s(\tau)\,\mathrm d\tau = R_s(t)$$ is the autocorrelation function of the signal $s(t)$. It is well-known, of course, that $R_s(t)$ is an even function of $t$ with a unique peak at the origin. Note that the output of the filter matched at time $t_0$ is just $R_s(t-t_0)$, the autocorrelation function delayed to peak at time $t_0$.




  4. No filter other than the matched filter for time $t_0$ can produce an output as large as $\mathbb E$ at $t_0$. However, for any $t_0$, it is possible to find filters that have outputs that exceed $R_s(t_0)$ at $t_0$. Note that $R_s(t_0) < \mathbb E$.




  5. The transfer function of the matched filter is $H(f)=S^*(f)$, the complex conjugate of the spectrum of $S(f)$. Thus, $Y(f) = \mathfrak F[y(t)]= |S(f)|^2$. Think of this result as follows. Since $x^2 > x$ for $x > 1$ and $x^2< x$ for $0 < x < 1$, the matched filter has low gain at those frequencies where $S(f)$ is small, and high gain at those frequencies where $S(f)$ is large. Thus, the matched filter is reducing the weak spectral components and enhancing the strong spectral components in $S(f)$. (It is also doing phase compensation to adjust all the "sinusoids" so that they all peak at $t=0$).





-------


But what about noise and SNR and stuff like that which is what the OP was asking about?


If the signal $s(t)$ plus additive white Gaussian noise with two-sided power spectral density $\frac{N_0}{2}$ is processed through a filter with impulse response $h(t)$, then the output noise process is a zero-mean stationary Gaussian process with autocorrelation function $\frac{N_0}{2}R_s(t)$. Thus, the variance is $$\sigma^2 = \frac{N_0}{2} R_s(0) = \frac{N_0}{2}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} |h(t)|^2\,\mathrm dt.$$ It is important to note that the variance is the same regardless of when we sample the filter output. So, what choice of $h(t)$ will maximize the SNR $y(t_0)/\sigma$ at time $t_0$? Well, from the Cauchy-Schwarz inequality, we have $$\text{SNR} = \frac{y(t_0)}{\sigma} = \frac{\int_{-\infty}^\infty s(t_0-t)h(t)\,\mathrm dt}{\sqrt{\frac{N_0}{2}\int_{-\infty}^\infty |h(t)|^2\,\mathrm dt}} \leq \frac{\sqrt{\int_{-\infty}^\infty |s(t_0-t)|^2 \,\mathrm dt} \sqrt{\int_{-\infty}^\infty |h(t)|^2\,\mathrm dt}}{\sqrt{\frac{N_0}{2}\int_{-\infty}^\infty |h(t)|^2\,\mathrm dt}} = \sqrt{\frac{2\mathbb E}{N_0}}$$ with equality exactly when $h(t) = s(t_0-t)$, the filter that is matched to $s(t)$ at time $t_0$!! Note that $\sigma^2 = \mathbb EN_0/2$. If we use this matched filter for our desired sample time, then at other times $t_1$, the SNR will be $y(t_1)/\sigma < y(t_0)/\sigma = \sqrt{\frac{2\mathbb E}{N_0}}$. Could another filter give a larger SNR at time $t_1$? Sure, because $\sigma$ is the same for all filters under consideration, and we have noted above that it is possible to have a signal output larger than $y(t_1)$ at time $t_1$ by use of a different non-matched filter.


In short,




  • "does the matched filter maximize the SNR only at the sampling instant, or everywhere?" has the answer that the SNR is maximized only at the sampling instant $t_0$. At other times, other filters could give a larger SNR than what the matched filter is providing at time $t_1$, but this still smaller than the SNR $\sqrt{\frac{2\mathbb E}{N_0}}$ that the matched filter is giving you at $t_0$, and if desired, the matched filter could be redesigned to produce its peak at time $t_1$ instead of $t_0$.





  • "why not make a filter that makes a really tall skinny spike at the point of decision. Wouldn't that make the SNR even better?"
    The matched filter does produce a spike of sorts at the sampling time but it is constrained by the shape of the autocorrelation function. Any other filter that you can devise to produce a tall skinny (time-domain) spike is not a matched filter and so will not give you the largest possible SNR. Note that increasing the amplitude of the filter impulse response (or using a time-varying filter that boosts the gain at the time of sampling) does not change the SNR since both the signal and the noise standard deviation increase proportionately.




  • "The I&D will basically ramp up until it gets to the sampling time and the idea is that one samples at the peak of the I&D because at that point, the SNR is a maximum."
    For NRZ data and rectangular pulses, the matched filter impulse response is also a rectangular pulse. The integrate-and-dump circuit is a correlator whose output equals the matched filter output only at the sampling instants, and not in-between. See the figure below.




enter image description here


If you sample the correlator output at other times, you get noise with smaller variance but you can't simply add up the samples of I&D output taken at different times because the noise variables are highly correlated, and the net variance works out to be much larger. Nor should you expect to be able to take multiple samples from the matched filter output and combine them in any way to get a better SNR. It doesn't work. What you have in effect is a different filter, and you cannot do better than the (linear) matched filter in Gaussian noise; no nonlinear processing will give a smaller error probability than the matched fiter.



agada stories legends - Is the leviathan kosher?


The leviathan seems to be a unique sea creature, which I've always pictured as some sort of sea serpent. This is consistent with Yeshayahu 27:1's description of it as a snake (nachash). An answer to this question suggests that it's a fish (and doesn't address Yeshayahu). We know from the midrash that at the end of days the righteous will feed on it, whatever it is.


One could argue that because the righteous will feed on it, it must be a kosher fish. Or if the leviathan is a serpent, one could argue that when God holds this end-of-days banquet He can declare anything He wants to be permitted, culinarily speaking -- the laws of kashrut as we know them don't apply. (I've no idea if such an argument would be, err, kosher.)


Do any sources say if the leviathan is kosher by the laws of the torah?



Answer




The medrash tanchuma on parshas Shmini #7 takes the opinion that at that great feast of Beheimos and Leviason, the mitzvos which until now were only to purify/smelt the people with will no longer apply. The proof is that the Beheimos will not have a proper slaughtering, but will rather be killed by the Liviason. The medrash goes on to prove that Liviason is an abnormal strong creature, capable of killing Beheimos.


But throughout the entire discussion of proving that slaughtering will become obsolete, the medrash does not entertain the idea that Beheimos or Liviason are not kosher.


The Vayikra Rabba in chapter 22 states explicitly that it is kosher.


The Bavli in Chulin 67b says it is a kosher fish. The Maharsha asks would Hashem ever feed his Tzadikim nonkosher fish? He answers that the gemara is clarifying that Liviason is in fact a fish and not some other creature like a bird. The Iyun Yaakov answers this question by pointing to Yalkut on Shmini 535 and on Tehilim siman 146, that in fact in the future Hashem will allow what was not allowed beforehand and a New Torah will be given from Tzion. The Aruch ערך גא says the gemara needed to tell us it was kosher because it is mentioned along with a snake, so as to preclude the assumption that it is not kosher like a snake, we have the drasha in the gemara.


zero padding - What happens when N increases in N-point DFT




I am curious about DFT, and I wrote a simple MATLAB code to test what happens when $N$ increases. I took a rectangular signal with length $L=15$, an then found th DFT of 16, 32 and 64 points. I looked at the plots of the DFTs, however I could not understand why there is difference between them and how zero padding affects the DFT. Could someone explain it?



Answer



The length N of the DFT is the number of frequency points that will result in the DFT output. Zero padding will result in more frequency samples, however this does not increase frequency resolution, it just interpolates samples in the DTFT. The frequency resolution is given by $1/T$ where T is the time length of your data (regardless of sampling rate). So if you want to increase the actual frequency resolution, you need to increase the number of samples at a given sampling rate, or decrease the sampling rate which would increase the time length for the number of samples you have.


For further explanation on the difference between the DTFT and DFT, see my post response here:


For 2D signals can it be said that the frequency response is the same as the Fourier transform?


Here is a demonstration showing frequency resolution and zero padding. The two red squares on the frequency axis at the top of the picture denote the "true" frequency location for two test tones, at f1 = 0.26 and f2 = 0.28. Given the seperation of 0.02 in normalized frequency (cylces/sample) we would need to have greater than 1/0.02 = 50 samples to resolve the two frequencies. The top plot shows the result of having only 10 samples of the data and zero padding out the time domain data for final datasets of 10 (no padding), 20, 50 and 100. We clearly see in this plot that as we add more samples, we interpolate more frequency points, but it does not offer any further information about the individual frequency content of our two tones.


Below that is another plot where instead of just adding zeros, we increase the number of samples in our dataset with the same two frequency tones present and again take the DFT with 10, 20, 50 and 100 samples. At 50 samples we have enough frequency resolution for our separation in frequency (but still difficult to see on the plot), while at 100 samples the separation is clearly visible.


enter image description here


enter image description here



Why is this? Padding with zeros is the same as multiplying the longer sequence with a rectangular window. Multiplying the time domain sequences is the same as convolution in the frequency domain (circular convolution for the DFT). The time domain rectangular window that we effectively used for the example above, and the resulting DFT of the window itself is shown in the plot below. The DFT of the window is what would convolve with our original frequencies. As the time length of the window increases, the width of the main lobe of its transform in frequency gets more narrow (the nulls are located at 1/T) and therefore the frequency resolution increases.


enter image description here


repentance teshuvah - Why don't Jews sacrifice animals anymore?


Correct me if I'm wrong, but Jews do not currently sacrifice animals like ancestors long ago. Why do Jews not currently sacrifice animals? Will there be a time when sacrificing returns once again? How are sins forgiven if an animal is not sacrificed to cover for those sins?




words - The definitions of Judaism and Jew


An infinite loop:


Judaism according to Google is "the monotheistic religion of the Jews".


And Jew is "a member of the people and cultural community whose traditional religion is Judaism and who trace their origins through the ancient Hebrew people of Israel to Abraham."





What are the best, the most precise definitions of both terms?




halacha theory - Different counts of the 248 organs - bones or soft tissues?


First read the related questions here (mitzvot-and-their-body-parts and here (613-organs).


The Mishnah in Ohalot (1:8) states that there are 248 organs and lists all of them:



"מָאתַיִם וְאַרְבָּעִים וּשְׁמֹנָה אֵבָרִים בָּאָדָם, שְׁלשִׁים בְּפִסַּת הָרֶגֶל, שִׁשָּׁה בְכָל אֶצְבַּע, עֲשָׂרָה בַקֻּרְסָל, שְׁנַיִם בַּשּׁוֹק, חֲמִשָּׁה בָאַרְכֻּבָּה, אֶחָד בַּיָּרֵךְ, שְׁלשָׁה בַקַּטְלִית, אַחַת עֶשְׂרֵה צְלָעוֹת, שְׁלשִׁים בְּפִסַּת הַיָּד, שִׁשָּׁה בְכָל אֶצְבַּע, שְׁנַיִם בַּקָּנֶה, וּשְׁנַיִם בַּמַּרְפֵּק, אֶחָד בַּזְּרוֹעַ, וְאַרְבָּעָה בַכָּתֵף. מֵאָה וְאֶחָד מִזֶּה וּמֵאָה וְאֶחָד מִזֶּה. וּשְׁמֹנֶה עֶשְׂרֵה חֻלְיוֹת בַּשִּׁדְרָה, תִּשְׁעָה בָרֹאשׁ, שְׁמֹנָה בַצַּוָּאר, שִׁשָּׁה בַמַּפְתֵּחַ שֶׁל לֵב, וַחֲמִשָּׁה בִנְקָבָיו. :


There are two hundred and forty-eight limbs in the body. Thirty in the foot - six in each toe, ten in the ankle, two in the shin, five in the knee, one in the thigh, three in the hip, eleven ribs, thirty in the palm - six in each finger, two in the forearm, two in the elbow, one in the upper arm, and four in the shoulder. One hundred and one of this [side of the body], and one hundred and one of that. And eighteen vertebrates in the spinal chord: nine in the head, eight in the neck, six in the openings of the heart, and five around its cavities.



However it elaborates the purpose of this counting as:



כָּל אֶחָד וְאֶחָד מְטַמֵּא בְמַגָּע וּבְמַשָּׂא וּבְאֹהֶל. אֵימָתַי, בִּזְמַן שֶׁיֵּשׁ עֲלֵיהֶן בָּשָׂר כָּרָאוּי. אֲבָל אִם אֵין עֲלֵיהֶן בָּשָׂר כָּרָאוּי, מְטַמְּאִין בְּמַגָּע וּבְמַשָּׂא, וְאֵין מְטַמְּאִין בְּאֹהֶל



Each of these impurifies through touching, carrying, or sharing quarters. When is this true? When the limbs still have an appropriate amount of flesh on them. But if they do not have an appropriate amount of flesh on them, they will impurify through touching and through carrying, but not through sharing quarters.



It is clear that only the bones are counted, hence the original "אברים" is translated as "limbs" and not organs. We don't see the soft tissues, like skin, muscles, eyes, tongue, brain, lungs etc.


Rambam in Hilchot Tumat Met 2,3 adds that the soft tissues are considered אברים also:



מה אדם בשר וגידים ועצמות אף אבר מן החי עד שיהיה כברייתו בשר וגידים ועצמות אבל הכוליא והלשון וכיוצא בהן אף על פי שהן אבר בפני עצמן הואיל ואין בהן עצם הרי הן כשאר הבשר


Implied is that the bone must be like a man, i.e., a human corpse. Just as a human corpse has flesh, sinews, and bones, so too, a limb from a living person must be intact as it was when it came into being and have flesh, sinews, and bones. In contrast, a kidney and a tongue, and the like, even though they are considered as complete ORGANS, since they do not contain bones, they are considered as the remainder of a person's flesh.



Combining the Mishna with Rambam we can count more than 248 organs, as it includes 248 bones plus the soft organs. Another slightly contradicting source is the Mishna in Negayim 6:




"עֶשְׂרִים וְאַרְבָּעָה רָאשֵׁי אֵבָרִין בָּאָדָם שֶׁאֵינָן מִטַּמְּאִין מִשּׁוּם מִחְיָה, רָאשֵׁי אֶצְבְּעוֹת יָדַיִם וְרַגְלַיִם, וְרָאשֵׁי אָזְנַיִם, וְרֹאשׁ הַחֹטֶם, וְרֹאשׁ הַגְּוִיָּה, וְרָאשֵׁי הַדַּדִּים שֶׁבָּאִשָּׁה."


There are twenty-four tips of limbs on man that do not become impure due to a healthy patch [seen in a Nega]: The tips of the fingers of the hands and feet [i.e. toes], the tips of the ears, the tip of the nose, the tip of the male organ, the tips of the breasts on a woman.



As we see it lists organs not listed in the Mishna in Ohalot.


I am confused - Is this a different counting of the 248 body organs, or is this the only one:



  • If it is different - where are the others?

  • If that's the only one, where are the soft organs counted?




ions - Deuterium removal from water


What percentage of deuterium might be removed from water after a typical electrolysis procedure? From a post on this site I read that, "In the first stage, $\ce{NaOH}$ solution (initially $0.5\rm{M}$) is subject to electrolysis, until only $\frac{1}{32}$ of the original volume remains. This increased the original concentration of deuterium by a factor of $12$."



This seems to be, for the electrolyzed hydrogen, an approximate $38\%$ decrease from the original concentration. If we assume the original concentration was $150\rm{ppm}$ then after the first pass, we might expect to have $93\rm{ppm}$ in the deuterium reduced hydrogen. If my estimate is valid, may I expect that each successive pass would reduce the deuterium content by a similar percentage?




grammar - When is 「だ/である」required between a noun and the quotation particle と?


Note: Edits in response to comments have been added in italics


The sentence prompting this question is:



時下ますますご清栄のことと、お喜び申し上げます




Which I have always "loosely" taken to mean:



I am glad to hear you are doing so well these days.



Based on the explanation of と on page 464 of "A dictionary of intermediate Japanese Grammar", I think there is an ellipsis of 伺いまして, and hence is quotive but I am not entirely sure.


But to return to my question, when is 「だ/である」required between a noun and the quotation particle と?:


There some straight forward cases that are easy to remember such as (1)with names (2) direct quotes and (3)"fixed expressions" such as "とばかり”:



(1) Tim と言います| I am called Tim 



(2)「____」と言います。|normal direct quote 


(3)負けじとばかりゴールを目ざして走った|Determined not to be beaten, he dashed toward the goal.



I also found the advice in the Dictionary of Basic Jpse Grammar that in the sentence:


米国の貿易赤字は しばらくのまま 続く もの と 予想される。 It is predicted that the US trade deficit will remain as it is for a while.


"Mono followed by a quotative と is used in general statements or opinion. This mono could be dropped without a change in meaning. Note that copula だ does not follow と."


But when making my own sentences of indirect quotes (etc?) it is not so straightforward because I am not sure what rule/principle applies.


Could somebody some insight on when the copula (だ)particle と go together?


(If sentence 3 is based on the same principle as sentence 2 then perhaps I have covered all the expceptions?)



Answer




I think it is simply an issue of whether you are quoting a complete sentence or not.



ティムと言います。
He is called Tim.


ティムと言っています。
It's being said that he is Tim.



As quoting particle, と is allowed to quote anything. But there are other uses of と, like the conditional と, the AとB(と) construction for "and", and the と of と-adverbs (like 負けじと of the third sentence), which I would say is related to the と of the mimeses like じっと, ちらっと, which are also adverbs.


The question of whether or not a だ・である should come before と is only relevant to と as quoting particle. For example, when an idea is presented with ということ(です), the idea is something that should be presented as a full sentence, which, when ending in a noun, should be followed by だ.




今日はお休みだということです。
It means that today is a holiday.



Quoting incomplete sentences only makes sense in appropriate contexts, for example when you give your name (where you only "quote" your name).


In English, too, quoting incomplete sentences (i.e. sentences without a verb) makes sense in few cases. The last example without a verb in the quoted sentence would render as



It means that today a holiday.



I think that both in English and Japanese indirect quotes should always be full sentences, i.e. in this case, in Japanese you should always use だ after noun phrases.


Of course, this rule may be broken for more polite Japanese, as in your example sentence:




時下ますますご清栄のことと、お喜び申し上げます。



would be a short & formal version of



時下ますますご清栄のことだと伺いまして、お喜び申し上げます。



(Of course that's not the only usual rule of grammar that polite language breaks: 申し上げる is transitive, but お喜び is not marked by を.)


hashkafah philosophy - What's the point of an oath?


There's an argument whether annulling an oath needs an excuse. Even if there needs to be an excuse, the excuse could be something weak like "I didn't know I shouldn't take oaths".


What's the point of an oath which could be cancelled at any time?




Wednesday, February 5, 2020

parshanut torah comment - Why did God want a Tabernacle built by Moses?



Why did God want a Tabernacle to live among Israel (Exodus 25:8)? What is the significance of the Tabernacle built by Moses?




gentiles - Accepting charity from a non-Jew


If a person sends out a group email to solicit funds to help needy families and inadvertently includes non-Jews on the email - Is it permitted to use the funds that the non-Jews donate towards helping needy Jewish families ?



I have read several articles on this subject but I am not clear in this case because:



  • There was no intent to solicit directly from non-Jews

  • The person is only an intermediary and the money goes to a third-party to distribute


I am not sure if the following makes a difference but:



  • The money was already accepted (darkei shalom)

  • the funds are not for a specific goal i.e. "give 10$ so we can buy a chicken for Yom Tov" rather the money is being collected and given to a Gabbai Tzdekah to distribute it as they see fit.



For those who are unfamiliar with the concept of accepting Tzedakla from a non-Jew please see this Mi Yodea post for more information




What percentage of Chabad still believes their Rebbe is the Messiah?


Are there any statistics as to what percentage of Chabad still believes that their Rebbe is the Messiah? Is it the majority or simply a very vocal minority? Have there been any serious studies made on the issue?



Please note this question seeks statistics not ideology.




passover - How to create a Seder to accommodate a large age/education range?


My family came across an interesting problem at tonight's Seder: My dad, the leader, attempted to write a Seder that attracted everyone at different times, but the actual result ended up as a particularly bad Seder beyond the norm. Here are some details:



  • The cousins' ages: 18, 16, 14, 12, 9, 7

  • 18 and 16 have had an excellent Jewish day school education, and the rest haven't had more than a Sunday school-level education

  • The families of 7/9 and 12/14 traditionally leave after Tzafun, which I'd assumed was out of the youngsters' exhaustion but now seems like an active decision out of a lack of interest in Barech/Hallel/Nirtzah


Here are the shticks that my dad tried to execute throughout the Seder:




  • Seder bingo - everyone got a piece of paper with a 5x5 board listing various elements of the Seder. The first person to make bingo by crossing off squares as their words got said over the course of the Seder (and get us to guess all 5 of their things, without using the words themselves) won the coveted prize of being first in line for dinner. We got a first and second place winner, but then it fell apart when everyone got bingo during the Ten Plagues.

  • Kid-oriented Magid - my dad's traditional Magid m.o. is to get the kids to fill in the blanks. Two problems: The 7- and 9-year-olds were too shy to contribute even the things that they did know, and the 12-year-old went off on a heavily Prince of Egypt-inspired summary of the start of the story, in which everyone else pretty much was able to zone out.

  • Modern problems - after removing the 10 drops from Kos Sheini, my dad had everyone go around and list a modern problem, and we'd remove another drop for each one. The 12-year-old thought it'd be funny to name explosive diarrhea as a problem facing the world today.

  • Mini-debates - at various points in the Seder, my dad asked for volunteers and assigned each of them a position to defend in 30 seconds before opening up a vote on who had the best argument. The kids had no involvement whatsoever.


Basically, our problem is this: How do we keep everyone engaged at the same time? Even the adults ended up in side conversations during the kid-oriented bits, and in a post-Seder "debriefing" held by those of us who stayed till the end acknowledged that my dad's role was more "traffic cop" than "Seder leader" tonight. Ever since he'd started planning this year's sdarim, he'd had the idea of maybe doing something different tomorrow night, since it's the exact same crowd who already did all the traditional stuff tonight.


What can we do at tomorrow's Seder that'll hold everyone's interest? For what it's worth, we're Reform, so hardly anything is off-limits. Our debriefing didn't come up with any solid ideas, so any and all suggestions are welcome!




parshanut torah comment - Egel- Why EILEH is Plural


Why when the Jews made the egel, a single bull, they use the words Eilah Elohecha Yisroel which is plural?




Answer



The Gemara (Sanhedrin 63a) cites a couple of opinions. (Actually, it's talking about the plural form of the verb העלוך, "those who brought you up," but I would assume that these also fit with the plural אלה. Baal Haturim to 32:4 in fact quotes the second opinion below in explaining this phrase.)




  • Acherim ("the others," usually R' Meir): they meant thereby to say that they accepted Hashem and (lehavdil) the Calf as co-equal deities (shituf).




  • R' Shimon bar Yochai: they wanted to worship many other deities besides the Calf. (He considers this less objectionable than shituf.) This opinion actually has halachic implications too: once the Jews demonstrated that idolatry was acceptable to them, then the Canaanites living in the Land of Israel could be considered their agents, and their worship of things such as asheirah-trees would indeed make them forbidden for use, even though they were already part of the Jews' patrimony (Avodah Zarah 53b).





meaning - What is this form : Verb + はせん?


I am currently trying to read Bleach in Japanese. So far I haven't ran into any difficulty that a good dictionary cannot overcome. However in this particular scene I am puzzled by a particular scene, in the first tome, chapter 5 I think:



enter image description here


俺のものだ!誰{だれ}にも渡{わた}しはせん!!まして黒崎{くろさき}一議{いちご}!!



So, this character is Orihime's brother. They have lived together until he died, and they were very exclusive, living without their parents. Upon his death, Orihime was at first praying for his rest everyday and such, but after a while she stopped praying and made new friends, including Kurosaki-kun with whom she is in love. Driven by jealousy, the brother comes back as a hollow to reclaim her.


So, I understand the rough meaning (I think):




She is mine! No one will take her from me!! Especially you, Kurosaki-kun!!



So my questions:



  • Is this the correct sense?

  • What is this form ? Is it simply a shortcut for 〜てはいけません? Where does it comes from? Is it common?

  • I have always used 渡す in a literal sense (for a road, a bridge...) Is it common to use it like this?



Answer



The basic meaning is the same as 渡さない. There are two differences:





  1. The focus particle は adds emphasis to the negative. In order to add the particle, the verb is split into two parts, 渡し+しない, with the particle added in between.




  2. The Western negative form せん (from せぬ) is used instead of the Eastern form しない.




No, it doesn't mean "cross over a road or bridge". He just said 「俺のものだ!」 ("It's mine!"), so you can tell he must be talking about not handing something over to anyone.


By the way, you'll see variations on 連用形+は+しない sometimes. One common form after the high vowels /i/ and /e/ is ~やしない, where the /wa/ has weakened to /a/, and the transition from the high vowel to /a/ sounds like a /y/ sound. If the /i/ or /e/ drops out, then it contracts further, as in the idiom ったらありゃしない, from と言ったら+あり+は+しない.



rabbis - Notable Rabbanim and Thanksgiving


I know (from a friend who attends) that the Maimonides, the school founded by R' Soloveitchik, observes Thanksgiving. Did the Rav, or any other notable American Rabbanim, observe Thanksgiving?




matlab - Filter message from noisy voice signal


I am trying to decipher a message hidden within a very noisy audio file(.wav)(I think it is white noise with an additional low drone). The message is a six digit number. I have not have any further details about the noise.


I attempted to use a low-pass filter in the hopes that eliminating most of the higher frequencies would allow me to hear the numbers but, I seem to be unable to also get rid of enough of the low drone to hear the voice well enough. My attempt was as follows (the employed function freq_space_low_pass_filter is included at the end):


[data, SampleRate, NbitsPerSample]=wavread('noisy_msg6.wav');

y=data(:,1); % we will work only with one channel in this demo
N=length(y); %number of sample points
t=( (1:N)*1/SampleRate ).'; % time spacing is 1/SampleRate and we want column vector


Y=fft(y);

spectrum_freq=fourier_frequencies(SampleRate, N);

Freq3db=100;
[spectrum_filtered,g_vs_freq]=freq_space_low_pass_filter(Y, SampleRate, Freq3db);


y_filtered=ifft(spectrum_filtered);


y_filtered=real(y_filtered);



wavwrite(y_filtered/(0.1+max(y_filtered)), SampleRate, NbitsPerSample,
'noisy_msg6_filtered.wav');

%%%%%%%%down sampling%%%%%%%%


indexes=(abs(spectrum_freq) < 10*Freq3db);
spectrum_freq_down_sampled = spectrum_freq(indexes);
spectrum_down_sampled = spectrum_filtered(indexes);
N_down_sampled = length(spectrum_down_sampled);

spectrum_down_sampled=spectrum_down_sampled*N_down_sampled/N;

SampleRate_down_sampled=SampleRate*N_down_sampled/N;

y_down_sampled=real(ifft(spectrum_down_sampled));

t_down_sampled = ( (1:N_down_sampled)*1/SampleRate_down_sampled ).';

sound(y_down_sampled, SampleRate_down_sampled)



function [spectrum_filtered,g]=freq_space_low_pass_filter(spectrum, SampleRate, Freq3db)
%% applies low pass filter in the frequency domain
% spectrum - result of fft on time series data (column vector is expected)
% SampleRate - measured in Hz, 1/dt where dt spacing of the points in time domain
% Freq3db - desired 3db roll off point in Hz


N=length(spectrum);

function G=filter_gain(freq, Freq3db)
G=1./(1+1i*freq/Freq3db); % this corresponds to low pass RC filter
end

spectrum_freq=fourier_frequencies(SampleRate, N);

% calculate filter gain for each spectrum frequency

g=filter_gain(spectrum_freq, Freq3db);
spectrum_filtered=spectrum.*g;
end



Plot of the signal spectrum: picture




everyday chemistry - Using table salt as a way to limit humidity in an unoccupied house


We own a static caravan in the UK (Snowdonia region, so rainy and wet all year round, moderately cold winters) and we leave it unoccupied during Winter (Oct-Feb).


We were advised of an apparently common practice among caravan owners which is to leave open boxes of table salt in each room, under the premise that they will capture moisture in the air and lock it away chemically in order to reduce the risk of moisture related decay in the building's structure.



I was skeptical that this would work but in the interests of science I did it anyway last winter. I took 7 plastic ice-cream tubs and put roughly 1 kilogram of domestic table salt into each and put one in each room of the home (two in the largest room - the kitchen/living room space).


I (stupidly) never took photos of this phenomenon but I have attempted to illustrate my findings...


enter image description here


Fig. B is complete speculation on my part as I did not return to the home during Winter to observe it. However in Spring when I returned, all of the tubs had experienced a change in their appearance.


All the tubs were now dry again, presumably down to evaporation due to increasing weather temperatures. And therefore releasing all that moisture back into the building again!


Three of the tubs were largely unchanged with some noticable "caking" together of the salt into crumbly, grainy lumps which returned to normal looking salt grains when crushed.


The most profound change from the remaining tubs was as you see in Fig. C of the diagram.


The salt had actually accumulated on the walls of the tub as a fine sediment. This suggests that water had accumulated in large amounts in the tub and had in fact risen higher than the original depth of the dry salt grains! I'd estimate that the tub would have had to accumulate about 0.5kg of water in order for the water/salt solution to reach the depth indicated by the dry sediment.


The salt had solidified into a single, large mass. The volume seemed to have increased noticeably but the density had also decreased accordingly, so the salt had basically expanded in it's container and solidified. It was crumbly and brittle and some of it had been reduced to a very fine sediment.


The home is a single storey, about 12m x 4.5m x 2.5m in volume.



My questions then:



  1. Is this a valid technique for capturing excess moisture over Winter?

  2. Are my observations and presumptions reasonable... Is Fig. B what really happened?

  3. What is the chemistry / physics process that caused the salt to be transformed from Fig. A to Fig. C?

  4. How many times did the tubs cycle between states B and C? Was it a single cycle that lasted all of winter, or a daily cycle following ambient weather temperatures? I could not tell just by looking at C on the last day of the experiment.



Answer



According to Transportation Information Service: Salt:




At up to 74% relative humidity and 20°C, salt does not absorb any appreciable quantities of water vapor. The critical water content of sodium chloride (NaCl) is 0.5% at 74% relative humidity, which is the flow moisture point at which salt begins readily to absorb water vapor, and increases such that, at 75% relative humidity, the salt dissolves.



See this graph for better understanding.


So at high humidity, salt can absorb lots of moisture, enough to become liquid.


When it is liquid, it will creep up the walls of the container by adhesion.


Then, when humidity decreases, the salt will lose almost all its moist, and contract, but leave residue up to the height of the former meniscus.


passover - Ashkenazim and Kitniyot on Erev Pesach


The following hypothetical case was raised in class today:


An American (ashkenazic) Jew is visiting Israel. On Erev Pesach, he has a hankering for sushi (the word hankering was not used in class -- this is my emendation). So he goes to a Sephardic, K for P restaurant. Can he order and eat sushi with rice?


This developed from a broader question -- can a Jew eat someone else's chameitz on erev pesach (so there is no issue of owning it) even if it means accepting any punishment for theft?



Answer



According to Chok Yaakov, cited by Shevet Halevi (OC 31), the custom to refrain from eating kitniyot begins on Erev Pesach, just the same as the prohibition of eating chametz.


jewish books - Sefer written by a woman?


I remember hearing once about a sefer written by a woman that people were learning but then it was banned. Do you the name of the sefer/author?


*I think it was written in pre-war Europe




minhag - Does Drinking Seltzer == Drinking Water?


Inspired by this revision of this answer:


There are various minhag implications with regards to drinking water. Seltzer is essentially carbonated water. So how do those minhagim apply to seltzer?


For example:



Would we say that seltzer has the same status as water in such cases?




organic chemistry - Why does trihaloacetaldehyde formed during the haloform reaction not undergo a Cannizzaro reaction?


We know trihaloacetaldehyde is formed during the haloform reaction of acetaldehyde with a halogen in strong base. Since it has no alpha hydrogens, I expected that it might undergo a Cannizzaro reaction, as we are using a strong base. Why not?




Tuesday, February 4, 2020

words - Stress of הושיעה and הצליחה in Hallel


Why is הושיעה Mileel (penultimately stressed) whereas הצליחה is Milra (ultimately stressed) in Psalms 118:25?





halacha - What is the stance on reading and writing non-Jewish literature?


So, I'm guessing that secular study books (e.g. Biology, Math, etc) are fine and I've heard that reading something like Fantasy is not. What genres of literature are allowed and not allowed to be read or written?


And as YEZ has suggested below, please mention how it's viewed (poorly, fine, etc).




The grammar of verb in ば form followed by いい


Phrases involving verb-ばいい occur frequently and yet I can't find it mentioned in any of my grammar resources. I understand that literally it means "if I do verb, it is good" but that rarely works as a sensible translation. The sentence that caused my question is




なんと呼びかければいいのかと質問してみたのであるが、...



Which I'm translating as



I tried inquiring as to how I should address him but, ...



It confused me because, whilst it isn't a wild step to go from ' if you do x it will be good' to 'you should do x', putting the question word なんと at the front makes that simple logic fail.


So my question is what is the general grammar for verb-ばいい (with and without question words)? What range of meanings can this phrase have? Also, can I replace いい with よくない to invert the meanings? Thanks.




quantum chemistry - What is an orbital boundary surface?


Could anybody explain the following statement:


"The boundary surface is a common way to represent atomic orbitals, incorporating the volume in which there is about a 90 percent probability of finding the electron at any given time.


I don't understand what does the author means starting from "incorporating the volume.."




window functions - What is the relation between windowing and hopping in audio DSP


While using short-time Fourier transform (STFT), it is common to use window function, usually tapered.




  • Will this not alter the original signal $x[n]$ and the STFT may no more be the true STFT of $x[n]$?

  • Also, what is the concept for sliding the frames not by $100\%$ of its width but a fraction of that? i.e, why should frames hop in small steps (for $75\%$ overlap, frames hop by $25\%$). Is there a conceptual explanation with as little math as possible?




Monday, February 3, 2020

halacha - Effect of Maariv being originally optional



Is there any practical application of the fact that maariv was originally instituted as an optional prayer, and only later became binding because it was universally accepted?




Full disclosure: I once heard that because maariv was originally optional, therefore if one would get undressed for bed and then remember that he hasn't davened yet, he would be exempt from getting dressed again to daven. I would like to find this source, and any other practical results of this prayer's origin.



Answer



Besides what's already been mentioned, there are a few leniencies because of this, though I've never heard of your specific one.


There's a much larger discussion in halakhic literature about how careful (or not) we are about davening maariv at the proper time, and the Rambam (3:7) believes that this is because Maariv is a reshut.


The Beis Yosef (268:13) says that if one forget to mention Shabbos on Friday night davening, then it's enough to hear (or say with the chazzan, according to the Magen Avraham there s.k. 15) the 'Beracha Me'en Shalosh' because Maariv is a reshut.


Another nafka minah (practical difference): the Rambam (Hil. Tefillah 10:6) believes that if one suddenly remembered in the middle of his prayer, even in the middle of a beracha, that he had already davened shemoneh esreh, than he should stop right away. However, when it comes to Maariv, since he didn't technically need to daven anyway, he can continue praying despite the fact that he had already davened maariv. In practice, however, the Raavad (there) argues, and therefore the Aruch Hashulchan (107:6) states that one should add something to his prayer as per the general rule of 'tefilat nedava' (optional prayer). (However, this isn't true according to Reb Chaim on the Rambam there).


Another difference is that according to R' Yaakov of Lisa (Derech HaChaim) is that if one is unsure whether or not he has davened, he normally should daven (what may be a second time), but this is not the case for Maariv. However, the Aruch HaShulchan argues (107:10) so I wouldn't follow this lehalacha.


halacha - Are there two things from which kares can cut one off?


In B'midbar 19:13 the Torah says that the punishment for entering the mikdash while impure is spiritual excision, using the words



וְנִכְרְתָה הַנֶּפֶשׁ הַהִוא מִיִּשְׂרָאֵל. . .



. . .that nefesh shall be cut off from Israel



and then in 19:20 it gives the punishment using the phrase



וְנִכְרְתָה הַנֶּפֶשׁ הַהִוא מִתּוֹךְ הַקָּהָל. . .


. . .that nefesh shall be cut off from amid the collective



.


Are there two types of kares which are differentiated by the body from which one is cut off as a result? Rash"i, Malbim, and some other likely candidates don't appear to ask this.




translation - "お調べいただいた上、" vs. "お調べいただき、..."


What is the difference in meaning between:




(1) お調べいただいた上{うえ}、注文通りの品をお送り下さいますよう、お願いします。
(2) お調べいただき、注文通りの品を送り下さいますよう、お願いします。



I understand #2.



(2) Upon your looking into the matter, please send me the stuff I ordered.



I can't figure-out how to voice "いただいた上、" in English in my head. I want a strict translation, not a paraphrase. Nothing is clicking for me, but this is my best try:




(1) Please look into the matter, and then based on what (I expect) you to find, send me the stuff I ordered.



Also, I am seriously hoping that "" was dropped off the end of "いただいた上、".



Answer



X as a prerequisite for Y:


X is what must be done before Y.



X いただいた上、Y してください。


After (and only after) doing X, do Y.






X and or then Y:


The order of completing X and Y is not strictly emphasized.



X いただき、Y してください。


Do X, and do Y.





See how (1) is asking a little more explicitly that you actually read the document before signing:





  1. お読みいただいた上、こちらにご署名{しょめい}ください。


After reading (the document), sign your name here.



  1. お読みいただき、こちらにご署名{しょめい}ください。


Read (the document), and sign your name here.



It would be weird to say (1) when the order doesn't matter:





  1. フォークはこちらに置{お}いていただいた上、スプーンはこちらに置{お}いてください。


After putting the forks here, put the spoons here.



  1. フォークはこちらに置{お}いていただき、スプーンはこちらに置{お}いてください。


Put the forks here, and put the spoons here.




organic chemistry - Reactivity of thioesters with respect to nucleophilic attack


Why are thioesters relatively reactive with regard to nucleophilic attack? Prof says to wait until pchem 3 when we learn about orbital symmetry. He also said that sulfur’s d-orbitals (?!) don't have the correct symmetry to participate in resonance with the carbonyl carbon.



Wait. I thought that sulfur didn’t utilize its d-orbitals. Was it previously taught that sulfur’s lone pairs were in d-orbitals? Why would sulfur even need d-orbitals when in a thioester? Can't we just explain this based on the poor overlap between carbon's 2p and sulfur's hypothetical 3p orbitals?



Answer



According to these lecture notes from Gonzaga University:



The question arises over why thioesters occupy a prominent place in metabolism while oxygen esters play a relatively minor role. One answer is thermodynamic. The sulfur in the thioester linkage is less able to participate in electron delocalization through the acyl group (the usual explanation given for this is poor overlap between the 2p orbital of carbon and the 3p orbital of sulfur), and this makes the thioester bond less stable than the ester bond. Hence, the thioester bond has a more negative standard free energy of hydrolysis (−7.5 kcal/mole vs. about −5 kcal/mole for most oxygen esters). In many cases, it appears that thioesters are more reactive than oxygen esters, undergoing more facile nucleophilic displacement reactions at the acyl group. The reactivity of a thioester at the alpha carbon compares favorably with that of ketones.



...



Because resonance structure 2c [see web page - CF] makes a more significant contribution for a thioester than an analogous structure for an ester, the acyl carbon is more positive, hence more susceptible to nucleophilic attack. An attacking nucleophile would be more readily acylated by a thioester than it would be by an ester. Furthermore, the C-S bond is weaker than the C-O bond, and the thiolate (or thiol, if protonated) is a better leaving group than alkoxide (or alcohol). These factors all make a thioester in general a better acylating agent than an ester.




So the answer doesn't seem to involve d orbitals explicitly, but instead the difference between 2p and 3p orbitals (as well as other factors).


halacha - Can I use a Parabolic Mirror or Fresnel Lens to cook on Shabbat?


Shabbat 39a discusses cooking on Shabbat using the sun. It is permitted to roll an egg on a hot roof to cook it since this is not a typical way to cook, but you can't burry it in sun-heated-sand because you need to dig a hole to put it in the sand. Also, a handkerchief heated by the sun is ok because you don't need to dig to put the egg in. Rav Grossman adds in his Daf Yomi shiur that there was a machloket over cooking in microwaves on shabbat, they don't get hot, so it should be allowed, however since it is normal to cook using them it's prohibited.


So, can I use a parabolic dish to harness the sun's direct heat to cook on Shabbat?


How about a Fresnel Lens?



Answer



As I understand it, the Talmud said there was no prohibition at all from cooking with direct sunlight; cooking on a solar-heated brick was prohibited because it looked like you were using an oven-heated brick.



With various lenses and reflectors, presumably you put the food in and then apply the lens; the cooking is with direct sunlight (albeit focused better), not a preheated surface. So I don't think it would fall under the rabbinic prohibition.


The more interesting question is that it may still be Biblically prohibited. As I heard in an mp3 from Rabbi Hershel Schachter, the novel reading of both Rabbis Moshe Feinstein and Joseph Soloveichik was that cooking by direct sunlight was only permissible because that wasn't a "normal" way of cooking at the time. (Rabbi Feinstein therefore felt that microwaving food would be a Torah prohibition; although it's been observed that when he wrote that a few decades ago, people thought that the microwave would completely replace the conventional oven; today microwave ovens are primarily handy for reheating, but don't do as much "real cooking" as their conventional counterparts.)


Therefore, if concentrated-solar cooking is normal, it would be Biblically prohibited. If abnormal, it would be allowed. How to define normal ... beats me (though my first inclination is that if it was normal, it wouldn't be on YouTube.)


reaction mechanism - Potassium citrate in water


I take potassium as a supplement in the form of potassium citrate. I dissolve a small amount in tap water and I drink it. Usually, I need to stir a lot, and sometimes I warm the water a little to make it easier to dissolve the potassium.


Recently, I bought some sparkling water (San Pellegrino, but I don't think that makes a difference) and when I put the potassium in it, it reacted making it bubble a little and it dissolved immediately.


Why is that? Did the potassium react with the CO2 or something else in the sparkling water?



Answer



Bubbles need nucleation points to form. The growth of bubbles is limited by the surface tension of the liquid. The surface tension acts stronger on smaller bubbles and less strong on bigger bubbles. Adding a solid salt to sparkling water means adding a lot of new nucleation points, which subsequently will lead to bubbling. The small bubbles will combine to bigger bubbles, these bigger bubbles are not so much effected by surface tension and so even more gas is produced. In other words, adding the salt will trigger a kind of avalanche effect, which weakens either if the dissolved CO2 gets towards used up or the salt gets dissolved completely.


It is not an reaction of dissolved potassium ions with the CO2, nor is it a reaction of dissolved citrate ions with the CO2. What happens here is a physical reaction and not an chemical reaction.


Sunday, February 2, 2020

Was katakana used in the teaching of Japanese as a foreign language?


The Wikipedia article Japanese language education in Vietnam, says that during the 1940s, Japanese was taught in Vietnam using either romaji or katakana. Is it true that katakana, rather than hiragana, was used?


My assumption was that if only one set of kana were taught, then it would have been hiragana. The Wikipedia article on furigana mentions that native speakers of Japanese learn hiragana before katakana, and that furigana is more commonly written in hiragana than katakana. Likewise, Sayo Masuda, a native speaker of Japanese who wrote her autobiography in 1957, had learnt hiragana (as an adult) but not katakana or kanji.



Answer



From this this paper, in an extract authored by one Mr. Sekino (関野) in 1943:



 普及会に於ては日本語教育の課程を便宜上四期(各期三ヶ月)に分けて
次の要領に依つて教授して居る。
第一期 「ローマ」字を用ひて正しき発音を教授し、「カタカナ」を用ひて
「ハナシコトバ」の教授を主眼とし、更に日本語の基礎文型を知らしめる。

 教材として国際学友会編纂「日本語教科書」基礎篇を使用する。
第二期 「ひらがな」を用ひ、教材として前記「日本語教科書」巻一中よ
 り適宜選択する。
 本期より漸次歴史的仮名遣を教授する。
第三期及第四期 夫々前記「日本語教科書」巻二、巻三中より教材を選択
 して教授する。



It's a pretty old usage of Japanese. I'd be grateful if somebody other than me could lend a hand in giving a proper translations of things like 用ひ (I assume 用い?) in this text, but I think it has the answer OP is looking for.


From what I understand, they did teach hiragana, but katakana first, and this was used in items such as childrens' books. Katakana was used as a gateway to Japanese grammar and pronunciation, and this was followed by the education in hiragana and kanji afterwards.


The reasoning for this could be down to katakana's greater status historically (such as being used in treaties with Korea and China in the late 1800s). Katakana was once historically the only script, and up until around 1900 katakana-kanji was used exclusively (including in treaties with Korea and China), but nowadays hiragana is by far the more useful of the kana syllabaries. Between 1900~1945, I know that hiragana was used informally (in letters between friends and in wartime posters), but I'm not sure when it was accepted into formal documents, if this was even pre-war.



As for Sayo Masuda, she never received any education in her youth, and post-war Japanese script reform made (and makes) starting with hiragana a more useful tool; probably why she and Japanese children nowadays learn it first. There's also the viewing of hiragana historically as "womens' writing", at least pre-1900s.


kohen priest - Physical defect vs. defect in Holiness


Vayikra/Leviticus 21:17 and 21 describe that a person (who is a kohen) and has a physical defect can't bring offerings made with fire and can't approach to bring near the food/bread for G-d. This reminded me of a verse a little bit earlier, Vayikra 21:6, which teaches that the kohanim should be holy for HaShem and shouldn't defile/profane His Name. Offerings made with fire, food for their G-d they bring near, and they shall be holy.


It seems that when a kohen has 'a defect in his holiness' he defiles/profanes the Name of HaShem. This seems to be a good reason not to have such kind of defect (in other words; a good reason to watch out that one doesn't get unclean, defiled or in any way profane the Name of their G-d in their representation of His Holiness).


But what do these physical defects has to do with this? And why can't they bring these offerings in order to represent His Holiness?


Appearance from the Torah's perspective, is surely insignificant , especially compared to character. Why, then, would the Torah exclude a perfectly decent kohen from performing the service simply because of a physical (seemingly superficial) physical defect/blemish?




tefilla - Yisgadal or Yisgadel?


I've noticed that some people, when reciting kaddish, pronounce the first words as "yisgadal v'yiskadash" with a patach under the dalet of both words, while others say "yisgadel v'yisgadesh" with a tzere. The siddurim that I own are in accordance with the former practice.



Is one version more correct than the other, and if so, which? And what is the origin of the incorrect version?



Answer



The short answer is that modern yeshiva students recite it with a tzeirei because this is brought in the Mishna Berura which has become a very popular sefer for "p'sak". The Mishna Berura brought it because of the weight he gives to the Pri Megadim, who quotes this version in the name of R' Hanau.


A more interesting and comprehensive background with sources can be found here.


Havdalah if you have to eat or drink on Tisha B'Av that comes out on Sunday


If a person for whatever reason has to eat and drink on Tisha B'Av that comes out on Sunday, and they know this ahead of time, when should they make havdallah on a cos? Should they make Motzei Shabbos like normally (however omit the other parts of havdallah that are omitted when someone would normally make havdallah on Sunday night after Tisha B'Av.) Should they make havdallah (on cos) only right before they will eat or drink. Or Should they wait and make havdallah (on a cos) Sunday night like everyone else?



Answer



The Shaarei Teshuva (OC 556) quotes those who require the ill person to recite Havadala "right away after Shabbat", though as Rav Ovadia Yosef (Yechavveh Daat 3:40) explains while citing many sources, this means as soon as they need to eat NOT right away on Saturday night if they can last until later in the day. This is indeed how Rav Yosef rules.


molecular orbital theory - Why is the more electronegative atom lower in energy in an MO diagram?



Let's take $\ce{NO}$ for example. Why is $\ce{O}$ lower in energy? I asked my teacher and he said that because it is more electronegative and this lowers the bonding energy of the MO. But why?




Nocturnal emission on Yom Kippur


What does having a nocturnal emssion on Yom Kippur mean? I’ve seen different opinions. Please cite sources.




children parenting - Parents mix in to marriage until 24 years old



I was once told that parents have a bigger say regarding who you (maybe only male) marry before you are 24 years old


Is this true? if yes sources please


(The only thing I saw that changes after the age 24/25 is that the parent needs to stop hitting his child since he is putting a stumbling block(his son will hit him back))




inorganic chemistry - Reaction of chlorine with hot/cold solution of hydroxide


When chlorine reacts with cold solution of say potasium hydroxide, the disproportionation goes to lower oxidation states:


$\ce{Cl2 + 2 KOH -> KCl + KClO + H2O} $



Whilst with hot solution the oxidation state of chlorine goes up to $+V$:


$\ce{3 Cl2 + 6 KOH -> KClO3 + 5 KCl + 3 H2O} $


Why is that? Does the heat make the oxidation to higher ox. states easier?




synagogue - when is shushing in a shul permited, when forbiden and when obligated


In my shul there is someone who shushes people that talk. He believes that he is obligated to do this. I understand that there is a prohibition against embarrassing people publicly and that sometimes you are obligated to protest publicly on a violation.


My question is (please give sources so that he will respect the answer more): In this shul people usually talk (there is no minhag not to talk) and the people that are talking are not davining. When can one attempt to quieten the talkers and when is it forbidden?



  1. There is no minyan (<10) and the chazan started to davin (befor yishtabach)


  2. There is a minyan but the minyan is holding before baruch sheamar

  3. The minyan is holding before shma

  4. The minyan is holding in shma

  5. The minyan is holding in shmona esrai

  6. The minyan is holding in chazoras hashatz

  7. The minyan is holding before krias hatorah

  8. The minyan is holding during krias hatorah

  9. Between aliyos

  10. After krias hatorah



thank you very much




halacha - Can you blow a shofar for fun on Rosh Hashanah?


Last week, someone quoted a halacha in shul about blowing shofar on Rosh Hashanah if it's not for the mitzvah. He said that it's recommended not to, but if someone really wants to, they should blow for someone who hasn't heard it yet.


The Shulchan Aruch (589:8), however, talks about someone who is "playing" a shofar, and doesn't mention anything about doing so b'dieved. You're not yotzei, but it doesn't sound assur.



Answer



Both the Aruch HaShulchan and the Kitzur Yalkut Yosef forbid adults to blow the Shofar after one has fulfilled one's obligation, with the exception of blowing for somebody else or if one isn't sure one fulfilled the mitzva.


ערוך השולחן - אורח חיים סימן תקצו - מנהג התקיעות לאחר התפילה




ב וכתב רבינו הרמ''א דלאחר שיצאו בזה – אין לתקוע עוד בחנם. אבל קטן, אפילו הגיעו לחינוך – מותר לומר לו שיתקע, ותוקע כל היום; עד כאן לשונו. ‏



קיצור ש''ע ילקוט יוסף סימן תקצו - תרועה גדולה בסוף התפלה



ב אחר התפלה וסיום כל התקיעות כולל התרועה הגדולה, אסור לתקוע שלא לצורך שום קול, מאחר שכבר יצא ידי חובה, והתקיעה שבות ולא הותרה אלא לצורך מצוה. ורק אם היה ספק בתקיעות המצוה, אם עלו כהוגן או לאו, מותר לחזור ולתקוע לצאת מידי ספק. [שו''ת יביע אומר ח''ט חאו''ח סי' נב. ע''פ מ''ש הרא''ש (פ''ד דר''ה סי' יא) בשם הראב''ן. והעיטור דף קב]. ועל כל פנים אין למחות ביד הנוהגים להקל. [מאור ישראל ראש השנה כט:].‏


ג מי שיש לו ספק ממש אם התקיעות היו כהלכה, או שקיצר בהם התוקע שלא כדין, חוזר לתקוע שלשים קול, לצאת מן הספק, אבל לא יברך, שספק ברכות להקל.‏


ד קטן פחות מגיל בר מצוה, שהגיע לחינוך, מותר ליתן לו לתקוע ולהתלמד, ואין בזה איסור כלל. [ילקוט יוסף מועדים עמוד נח]. ‏



What does the term phase actually mean?


I am new to seismic data processing and I really have no understanding of the term 'phase'. So, could anybody give me a simple explaination of the term? Thank you




halacha - Wearing tefillin during mincha, would someone get a mitzvah for it?



let's say someone would have tefillin on him during mincha shemona esrei. Would he get a mitzvah for during so? Would that be allowed?




bond - How can the gauche-effect be explained?



Generally, anti-conformations are more stable. But in the case of 2-fluoroethanol, the gauche confirmation is more stable.


It's given in March's advanced organic chemistry book that intramolecular hydrogen bonding is not the correct reason for the stability. Wikipedia explains it using hyperconjugation, but I am not able to understand it. What is the actual reason for the gauche effect?



Answer



The gauche effect is commonly explained with LCAO-based bond orbitals. LCAO is short for linear combination of atomic orbitals and implies that we can take two atomic orbitals $\phi_1, \phi_2$ and create two molecular orbitals $\psi_1, \psi_2$ from them by linear combination: $\psi_1 = a_1 \phi_1 + b_1 \phi_2$ and $\psi_2 = a_2 \phi_1 + b_2 \phi_2$.


Considering two neighbouring $\ce{sp^3}$ hybridised carbon atoms, we can create a $\unicode[Times]{x3c3}$-orbital between them by overlapping a hybrid orbital of each; and if $a_1 = a_2$ and $b_1 = - b_2$ (or vice-versa) we can create an antibonding $\unicode[Times]{x3c3}^*$-orbital; both are shown in figure 1 (the bonding in the bottom row, of course). Note that the lobes on each side are the same size.


Sigma and sigma* orbitals of CH, CC and CF
Figure 1: $\unicode[Times]{x3c3}$ and $\unicode[Times]{x3c3}^*$ orbitals of $\ce{C-C}$, $\ce{C-H}$ and $\ce{C-F}$ bonds (schematically).


If we consider a $\ce{C-H}$ bond rather than a $\ce{C-C}$ bond, we need to take electronegativity into consideration. Compare with the middle column of figure 1: The more electronegative element, carbon, contributes more to the $\unicode[Times]{x3c3}$ orbital, while the less electronegative element hydrogen contributes more to the $\unicode[Times]{x3c3}^*$ orbital. (Note that hydrogen uses a 1s-orbital for binding.)


Similarly for the $\ce{C-F}$ bond, although now fluorine is more electronegative than carbon. And note how fluorine uses a p-orbital for bonding: No energy or anything else would be gained by hybridising fluorine’s orbitals. Neither the size difference between hydrogen’s and carbon’s nor that between fluorine’s and carbon’s orbitals is to any scale and both are grossly exaggerated.


The gauche effect, as a special form of hyperconjugation, relies us on looking at how these molecular orbitals can (or cannot) interact with each other. If we look at the relevant part of the molecule (compare figure 2), we can see that if hydrogen and fluorine are anti to each other, we get a $\unicode[Times]{x3c3}_{\ce{C-H}}$ bond and a $\unicode[Times]{x3c3}^*_{\ce{C-F}}$ bond that have favourable geometries and favourable lobe sizes for overlap.



Overlap C-H and C-F*
Figure 2: Potentially overlapping orbitals in the gauche and anti cases of 2-fluoroethanol.


On the other hand, as also depicted in figure 2, the overlap would be bad if oxygen and fluorine be anti due to the small contribution of the less electronegative carbon to the $\unicode[Times]{x3c3}_{\ce{C-O}}$ orbital. (For simplicity, I have rendered oxygen using a plain p-orbital. Oxygen usually has orbitals somewhere between p and $\ce{sp^2}$.)


All this so far tells us why the interaction is geometrically favourable, but we yet did not deduce why it is energetically favourable. And here is where we are, more or less, linear combining the two molecular orbitals we created by linear combination earlier. The combining we are doing is a very general thing, observed not only in the gauche effect here or in hydrogen peroxide, but also is the basis for the anomeric effect in carbohydrates and hyperconjugation. The principle is: If we combine an occupied orbital with an unoccupied one, the occupied orbital gets lowered in energy while the unoccupied gets raised. Because only the occupied orbital contains electrons and their energy is lowered, the entire system gains stability. (You can read the two bolded half-sentences as one.) Compare figure 3.



Figure 3: Stabilisation by combining occupied and unoccupied orbitals


What we have done, is lower the energy level of an already lowered (because bonding is favourable) occupied orbital; the entire system gains. We often state this by saying things such as:



Electron density is transferred into the antibonding orbital.




But it really boils down to stabilising occupied orbitals. However, that transfer of electron density helps us understand part of the consequences associated with this favourable mixing. If both the bonding and the antibonding orbitals of a certain bond are occupied, you can think of that bond as non-existant; as if both sides had an electron pair. If, on the other hand, neither orbital is occupied, the bond does also not exist, but due to lack of electrons. We can use that analogy to create a mesomeric description of the gauche effect with the two resonance structures depicted in scheme 1.



Scheme 1: A possible depiction of resonance stabilisation corresponding to the gauche effect.


Many chemists out there will vigorously refute this depiction as invalid. Indeed, the resonance structure on the right-hand side of the mesomery arrow shows charge separation and a non-optimal number of bonds. We can therefore assume that it only contributes ever so slightly to the complete picture — which is in line with the electron density only minutely being transferred and also the new bonding orbital (figure 3) being a lot closer in shape and size to the $\unicode[Times]{x3c3}_{\ce{C-H}}$ orbital rather than $\unicode[Times]{x3c3}^*_{\ce{C-F}}$ orbital. But the depiction certainly helps us understand why oxygen cannot do the job: Imagine $\ce{HO+}$ instead of $\ce{H+}$. Looks ugly and unstable from a chemical point of view.


Saturday, February 1, 2020

periodic table - Relativistic effects in element 137 (Feinmanium) and above


Here I saw that if an element above atomic no 137 has to exist, it must have electron speed greater than speed of light. My question is , has this calculation been done keeping in mind Einstein's relativity? {I am just asking, I have not done this calculation.}



Answer



Yes, the value 137 occurs even considering Einstein's theory of special relativity.


137 comes from considering Sommerfeld or Dirac relativistic theories, when the nucleus is modeled as a point.


See equation 1 of A new method for solving the Z > 137 problem and for determination of energy levels of hydrogen-like atoms



halacha - Where is it taught that you can't sleep with socks


I remember hearing that you can't sleep with socks. I think Rambam stated this (correct me if i am wrong), but where in Rambam was it said and why do we do it?



Answer



As a supplement to Matt's answer; see Mishna Berura 2:1, who writes that




מיושב: דאז בהכרח יתגלה גופו והאדם צריך להתנהג בצניעות ובושה לפני הקב"ה ואפילו כשהוא לילה ובחדרי חדרים הלא מלא כל הארץ כבודו וכחשיכה וכאורה לפניו יתברך....ע"כ האנפלאות יראה ללבשם או לפשטם ג"כ תחת הסדין שלא לגלות רגליו שדרכן להיות מכוסות לעולם במדינות אלו שאין הולכין יחף אפילו בקיץ....‏


That way, a person would reveal his flesh, and a person needs to act modestly wherever he is, even in private, because Hashem is everywhere. Even at night, and in a closed room; for "the world is filled with His glory," (Yeshayahu 6:3) and dark and light are the same to Him....therefore, it would appear that one should put on and take off one's sock under his covers, so that his feet should not be uncovered, for it is the norm in our places to always walk around with our feet covered, even in the summer we never walk barefoot....



( my own translation )


In context, it's clear that the issue with this is because of tzniyus, modest dressing.


[h/t Danno in comments]


translation - けん in 佐賀 dialect


I have encountered a number of passages with 〜けん in 佐賀のがばいばあちゃん. I'm not quite sure what it means exactly. I've seen instances where it appears to mean から and others where it appears to mean けど. I'm not sure if my interpretation is correct or not.


The following are some examples.



「そりゃ行きたいけん、お金がなかと」



p. 94, ch. 7


"I want to go [there] but I don't have any money"?


けん=けど?




「明日から、昭広がごはんをたくんやけん、よう見ときんしゃい」



p. 28, ch. 2


"From tomorrow you'll be cooking your own meals, so watch carefully"?


やけん=だから



「先生、すいません。あれは伊勢エビじゃなくてザリガニです。私がこの子に、伊勢エビて言うてたけん.....」



p. 57, ch. 4



"I'm sorry, sir. Actually, it wasn't spiny lobster; it was crayfish. I told this boy it was spiny lobster, though..."?


けん=けど?


If someone could clarify the meaning of けん, that would be very helpful. Thanks!



Answer



けん and its variants are widely used in the western/southern parts of Japan including Kyushu. I grew up in an area in Shikoku where けん only meant "~から (because)". Your last two examples look easy and straightforward to me because these けん obviously mean "because".




  • 明日から、昭広がごはんをたくんやけん、よう見ときんしゃい。
    Akihiro, because you're going to cook rice from tomorrow, you must watch carefully.

  • 私がこの子に、伊勢エビて言うてたけん...

    Coz I was telling him it's an 伊勢エビ...





However I was not familiar with the usage of けん in your first example, where けん seems to mean "although".




  • そりゃ行きたいけん、お金がなかと。
    Of course I want to go, but I have no money.




I've found articles that say at least in 宮崎弁, けん is used similarly to ~けど (source 1, source 2).



はらへったけん めしがねえわ
例訳:「腹減ったけどごはんがないわ」



佐賀 is not far away from 宮崎, so けん may also mean けど in 佐賀弁.


3dB and 6dB Per Octave Rolloff Digital Filters / Generating Pink and Brown Noise


So I would like to have a design method for filters with 3dB and 6dB per octave roll off -- for generating pink and brown noise respectively.


I know the following 'pinking' filters exist: Filter to add 3dB per octave?


But the poster says he doesn't remember the value for A, nor does he give any idea of how he did it in the first place.


So my main question is:


How do we pick the poles and zeros of such a filter?



Answer




So I have figured out the answer, thanks to a little prodding by RBJ.


Creating -6dB/octave Filters and Brown Noise:



  1. Generate a White Noise Sequence.

  2. Design a 1st Order Butterworth Filter

  3. Apply 1st Order Buttworth to the White Noise Sequence [Use the Bilinear Transform to convert the analog coefficients to digital, and apply the digital filter to the white noise sequence].


Creating -3dB/octave Filters and Pink Noise:



  1. Generate a White Noise Sequence


  2. Generate arbitrary interleaved poles and zeros on the positive real line within the unit circle. Such that $|p_{i}| > |z_{i}|$ and $|z_{i}| > |p_{i+1}|$. Set the first pole close to the unit circle.

  3. Convert these roots to coefficients, and use these coefficients as the coefficients of a digital filter.

  4. Apply said digital filter to the White Noise Sequence.


What I am still not sure of is why we need to interleave the poles and zeros, but that isn't exactly what the question asked. Can anybody elaborate?


number - Shelosha Vachamishim?



Who knows fifty-three?


Please cite/link your sources, if possible. At some point in the next few days, I will:




  • Upvote all interesting answers.




  • Accept the best answer.





  • Go on to the next number.





Answer



53 is the maximum number of consecutive days with something "extra" in the evening prayers. And it happens twice. At least on this year's calendar, outside of Israel.


In the late summer / early fall: The night going into the 30th of Av gets Yaaleh v'yavo; the 29 nights of Elul all get L'David Hashem Ori V'Yishi (Psalm 27). The 22 nights of Tishrei through Shmini Atzeres get Psalm 27 as well. And the night concluding Shmini Atzeres gets "ata hareisa" and Simchas Torah. That makes 53.


On this year's calendar, the night concluding Simchas Torah gets no "ata chonantanu", as it's a Friday night. Just the usual, unmodified, Friday-night prayers.


In the spring / early summer: The night going into the 15th of Nisan is a holiday and has ya'aleh v'yavo; the next 49 nights have Sefiras HaOmer. The next two nights are holiday, and the next night concludes with "ata chonantanu." 53.


organic chemistry - Are there any acid-base indicators whose protonated and deprotonated forms have the same number of resonance structures?


This question asks about the color change of 7-hydroxyphenoxazone, the active compound in litmus paper, and the relation of that color change to the conjugated system in the molecule.


7-hydroxyphenoxazone


In Klaus Warzecha's answer, he mentions 4-nitrophenol as another, simpler indicating system, analogous to 7-hydroxyphenoxazone.


4-nitrophenol


In both of these species, as noted by Klaus, deprotonation of the hydroxyl group to an -olate moiety enables a resonance between the substituents, through the molecular cores, which is not possible in the protonated species:


phenoxazole resonance


nitrophenol resonance



I'm interested in knowing whether this property of an "opened-up resonance on deprotonation" and the concomitant influence on the excitation spectrum are necessary characteristics for indicating compounds.


So: Are there any known examples of acid-base indicators (e.g., compounds exhibiting a change in visible-spectrum absorbance upon deprotonation) where the removal of the proton does not "open up" additional resonance structures in this fashion?


Clicking through some of the links on Wikipedia's $\mathrm{pH}$ indicators page, I would guess that cresol red, bromocresol green, and bromophenol blue potentially fall into this category, but I'm not confident enough in my evaluation of resonance structures to be certain.



Answer



In contrast to 4-nitrophenol, cresol red, bromocresol green, and bromophenol undergo structural changes upon deportonation because the sultone opens up.


But again, you can draw quinoid resonance structures for the resulting anions.


「一週間後に解約する」 but 「一週間後での解約」, why not the same particle?


Some rough Google search shows:



一週間後に解約する (✓)


一週間後で解約する (☓)



but:




一週間後にの解約 (☓)


一週間後での解約 (✓)



If that's right, why is that discrepancy?


Questions below seem related:


What's the difference between に and で when speaking of time of an action?


に vs で again: 前に vs 後で




和訳



少しググった限りでは、



一週間後に解約する (◯)


一週間後で解約する (☓)



に対し、



一週間後にの解約 (☓)


一週間後での解約 (◯)




なようですが、誤りでなければ、なぜこういうふうに食い違っているのですか?


以下の質問とも関係がありそうです。


What's the difference between に and で when speaking of time of an action?


に vs で again: 前に vs 後で




halacha - Can you buy a beggar non-Kosher food, or chometz on Pesach?


If I am asked for money by a beggar on the street, or see a homeless person with a sign, I try and give them food as it is usually more useful than money (which will probably be used for alcohol or drugs).


I was asked this morning for money and I offered to buy the person breakfast instead, he refused, but it made me wonder if it was acceptable to buy a gentile homeless person non-kosher food, most likely trief meat or pork?



Also, once Pesach begins would be acceptable to buy a gentile beggar chometz, as pretty much anything you would buy on the street would be chometz during Pesach?


I did see this similar question, and I'd obviously avoid beef with cheese as I know you cannot derive any benefit from it, ever.




grammar - Is へ and に interchangeable in these cases?


I'm just starting to learn Japanese. I am not quite understand about one of the uses of the captioned particles. I've learned that に refers to the location of destination, and へ refers to the direction of the destination. But my friend told me they are interchangeable and に is colloquial and へ is for writing. If yes, in below cases are they interchangeable?





  1. 川の 向こう 渡る 橋は 一つしかありませんでした。

  2. 友達と レストラン 行きます。

  3. 来月 国 帰ります。



Will the meanings be different if へ is changed to に? If yes, what difference will be?


Thanks!!




fft - What's the significance of lomb-scargle power?


What is the significance of Lomb-scargle power (y-axis)?


I have two data sets. For each plot, above plot is Lomb-scargle periodogram of the lower plot (original data).


The first data set has an amplitude of ~ 300, oscillating between (200, 800). It has lomb-scargle power of 0.022 in peaks.


The first data set has an amplitude of ~ 50, oscillating between (700, 600). It has lomb-scargle power of 0.20 in peaks.



enter image description here


enter image description here


How should I interpret the significance of the lomb-scargle power? In FFT, the amplitude in Fourier transformed plot was directly related to the amplitude of the original plot, but it seems that the relationship is the opposite in Lomb-scargle?




matlab - DCT and mean difference of an image


If we subtract the mean of image from the DCT coefficients of an image



  • what does it signifies?

  • and what type of distribution does it follow?


Example in MATLAB:



i=imread('cameraman.tif');
c=mean2(i);
d=dct2(i);
f=c-d;

what does f signifies?



Answer



Following the answer given by @msm, linear transformations applied on images often have a DC (direct current) component, i.e. a coefficient that is proportional to the mean of the image. It amounts to projecting the image onto a constant vector (e.g. here on a constant image).


The scale factor depends on the image size only, and depends on the normalization applied to the constant vector. As said by @msm, in the case of an orthonormal transform such as the dct2, the proportional factor is exactly the square-root of the number of elements (or pixels) of the image, hence $\sqrt{n_x\times n_y}$.


Subtracting the average from the scaled dct2 coefficients does not seem useful, from what I know.



However, the question can be reframed. Whether you transform the whole matrix or little blocks, the DC coefficients have, in practice on natural images, specific distributions. On the other coefficients, called AC (alternating current), several works have proposed a possible fit by parametric distributions, like Laplace, Gauss or Rayleigh laws. The generalized Gaussian, or Laplacian-Gaussian law seems a good fit on natural images, as detailed for instance in Distribution shape of two-dimensional DCT coefficients of natural images, 1993 or On the Modeling of DCT and Subband Image Data for Compression, 1995. The image below is the average distribution of the absolute values of coefficients on $8\times 8$ blocks from the cameraman image ($\log$ scale). You can see the different behavior of the $d(1,1)$ coefficient. This is why, in these applications, the mean is removed from the image BEFORE the DCT. Or the DC coefficient is removed from the DCT transform.


DCT distribution


When either performed globally, or locally, the parameters obtained from the fit can be used to improve compression performance, or infer a class for block (texture, edge, etc.)


digital communications - Understanding the Matched Filter

I have a question about matched filtering. Does the matched filter maximise the SNR at the moment of decision only? As far as I understand, ...