I was glancing through "The Fourier Transform & Its Applications" by Ronald Bracewell, which is a good intro book on Fourier Transforms. In it, he says that if you take the FT of a function 4 times, you get back the original function, i.e. F(F(F(F(g(x)))))=g(x).
Could someone kindly show me how this is possible? I'm assuming the above statement is for complex x, and this has something to do with i0=1, i1=i, i2=−1, i3=−i, i4=1?
Thank you for your enlightenment.
Answer
I'll use the non-unitary Fourier transform (but this is not important, it's just a preference):
X(ω)=∫∞−∞x(t)e−iωtdt
x(t)=12π∫∞−∞X(ω)eiωtdω
where (1) is the Fourier transform, and (2) is the inverse Fourier transform.
Now if you formally take the Fourier transform of X(ω) you get
F{X(ω)}=F2{x(t)}=∫∞−∞X(ω)e−iωtdω
Comparing (3) with (2) we have
F2{x(t)}=2πx(−t)
So the Fourier transform equals an inverse Fourier transform with a sign change of the independent variable (apart from a scale factor due to the use of the non-unitary Fourier transform).
Since the Fourier transform of x(−t) equals X(−ω), the Fourier transform of (4) is
F3{x(t)}=2πX(−ω)
And, by an argument similar to the one used in (3) and (4), the Fourier transform of X(−ω) equals 2πx(t). So we obtain for the Fourier transform of (5)
F4{x(t)}=2πF{X(−ω)}=(2π)2x(t)
which is the desired result. Note that the factor (2π)2 in (6) is a consequence of using the non-unitary Fourier transform. If you use the unitary Fourier transform (where both the transform and its inverse get a factor 1/√2π) this factor would disappear.
In sum, apart from irrelevant constant factors, you get
x(t)F⟹X(ω)F⟹x(−t)F⟹X(−ω)F⟹x(t)
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