Assuming that one can ascertain that food cooked by an irreligious Jew is kosher, is the food still prohibited due to Bishul Akum? Does this also apply in a case of need, such as one visiting an irreligious relative, where it may be embarrassing and inconvenient to procure other food?
Answer
Halachically Speaking (7:2) has a great overview of this question:
There is a discussion in the poskim regarding the status of a Jew who is not observant. The Rambam states that a Jew who is mechalel Shabbos (openly) is considered like a non-Jew for all mitzvos. The Pischei Teshuva debates the status of a mechalel Shabbos (mumar) in regard to bishul akum, since the prohibition is dependent on the two reasons for the issur of bishul akum:
- because we are concerned that the Jew will come to marry the non-Jew; it is questionable if this applies to an irreligious Jew
- a concern that the nonJew will mix some non-kosher ingredients into the food, which would apply to an irreligious Jew
Some poskim rule that food cooked by a Jew who is not observant is forbidden, while others permit it. Other poskim say that nowadays it is difficult to find someone who is a true mumar, as most assimilated Jews are tinokos shenishba and transgress the Torah accidentally.
Contemporary Opinion: The opinion of Harav Yisroel Belsky Shlita is that the custom is to permit the cooking of a non-religious Jew. This opinion is based on a ruling from Harav Moshe Feinstein zt”l that the main reason for the prohibition of bishul akum is intermarriage, and we are not concerned about intermarriage regarding non-frum Jews.
Nonetheless, it is preferable to be stringent l’chatchilah even by a tinok shenishba, but b’dieved it is permitted. This is the custom among the kashrus agencies.
From http://www.shemayisrael.com/parsha/halacha/Volume_7_Issue_2.pdf, which also has all the references in footnotes
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